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Role of Textile Industry in Pakistani Economy

Last Updated on March 8, 2022 By Methew Harbor Leave a Comment

Textile is a term that comes from “texture” which means “to weave”. The textile industries have special importance in the national economy of developing countries. By keeping the creative activities of the manufacturing process in their own terms, the developing countries in Europe have restricted their textile industries and are also transferring their production facilities to other less developed countries.

Basically, textile products are the requirement of human beings and have great importance in the economic and social terms of any developing country. In short term, it provides incomes, jobs, especially for women and foreign currency recipients. While in long term, it provides the opportunity for sustained economic development in those countries with appropriate policies.

The textile industry is one of the largest, oldest, and most global industries in the world. It has effects on government policies as well as on the investors and institutions in developing countries that grow on this investment. It has major participation in employments and exports of a country.

Economic Aspects

The textile industries are very important in terms of trade and employment for a lot of countries. It has provided some significant economic changes in several countries and is also providing opportunities for export diversification and expansion of manufactured exports for low-income countries. So that they can make full use of their labor cost advantages and fill the emerging niches and meet buyer’s demands.

  • The textile industries have major effect on the economic development of any country.
  • The textile industries are a major source in contributing to money or incomes for selected countries.
  • The contribution of textile production in GDP is different in different countries. It is up to 32% in Sri Lanka, 40% in Cambodia and 8.5% in Pakistan.
  • The textile industries are a dominant sources of export.They are also a source of foreign exchange in several countries.
  • Developing and low-income countries such as Cambodia, Bangladesh, Pakistan and Sri Lanka depend on Textile exports for more than 50% of total manufacturing export.
  • Textile has also a significant effect on employment. Employment in textile production for less developed and low-income countries share a total of 35% in selected low-income countries, 75% in Bangladesh and 90% in other selected LDCs.

Effects of Textile Industry on Pakistan’s Economy

Pakistan’s economy relies heavily on its cotton and textile sector. The cotton processing and textile industries make up half of the country’s manufacturing base. Cotton is Pakistan’s principal industrial crop that is supplying crucial income to rural households.

The Pakistani textile manufacturers are very optimistic in nature and want to increase the international share, and they have the target to increase the exports to around 10$ billion US dollars.

The Pakistani textile manufacturers claim that textile products such as yarn, fabrics, cloth, and bed linen are the most competitive items in the world, the quality of these products is very fine compare with any other developed country. These items have a major share in our overall textile exports.

They claim that the leading textile producers and the exporters of the world like China, Germany, Bangladesh, and Sri Lanka import these products from Pakistan and convert them into high fashion items, and export these to the world. Pakistan has a major role in supplying raw materials to these countries.

There is a huge investment in Pakistan’s textile industry; this investment helped to develop the textile sector. Investment in the textile sector is divided into different segments of the industry. A sufficient percentage of the workforce of Pakistan is employed in the textile and clothing industries.

Spinning has made 46% of the total investment; the weaving sector has made 24%. Textile processing has made 12%, made-up 8%, knitwear and garments 5%, and 5% invest in the synthetic textile sector.

Conclusion

The need is to make beneficial changes for the development. The people should be more educated about this industry and its effects on other industries. There should be aware of the drastic changes it can make in the economy. In this way, people will be more involved in textile production.

Energy cost is the main and major issue in developing countries like Pakistan. They should start researching on developing a reliable source of energy. Only then the textile industry would be able to provide benefits like other developed countries.

Filed Under: Economy, Industries

PPSC MCQs: Educational Evaluation Measurement and Assesment

Last Updated on June 17, 2022 By Ayesha Saeed

Q. 1 – Process of quantifying given traits, achievement or performance of someone is called:

  • Test
  • Measurement
  • Assessment
  • Evaluation

Q. 2 A collection of procedure used to collect information about students’ learning progress is called:

  • Measurement
  • Assessment
  • Evaluation

Q. 3 The process of collection, synthesis, and interpretation of information to aid the teacher in decision making is called:

  • Test
  • Measurement
  • Assessment
  • Evaluation

Q. 4 According to…………assessment is a general term that includes the full range of procedure used to gain information about students learning and formation of value judgments concerning learning progress:

  • Arirasian
  • Gay
  • Linn and Gronlund
  • Gronlund

Q. 5 Evaluation is process of:

  • Assigning number to a  given trait
  • Making value judgment of student’s learning
  • Making value judgment of institutions, program or project
  • Making value judgment of teacher’s performance

Q. 6 Measurement includes…………..procedures:

  • Quantitative
  • Qualitative
  • Quantitative as well as quantitative
  • None of these

Q. 7 An evaluation of student performance in a specific learning context is called:

  • Process evaluation
  • Product evaluation
  • Formative evaluation
  • Summative evaluation

Q. 8 Examination of experiences and activities evolved in the learning situation is called:

  • Process evaluation
  • Product evaluation
  • Formative evaluation
  • Summative evaluation

Q. 9 Evaluation is an umbrella term that covers:

  • Measurement
  • Assessment
  • Testing
  • All of above

Q. 10 Learning style of students is determined by:

  • Text book
  • Learning material
  • Assessment
  • Teacher

Q. 11 Result of students assessment can be used for:

  • Clarifying the nature of the learning outcomes
  • Providing short term goals to work toward
  • Providing feedback concerning learning progress
  • All of the above

Q. 12 Information from carefully developed tests and other types of assessments can aid in judging:

  • The appropriateness and attainability of the instructional goals
  • The usefulness of the instructional methods
  • The effectiveness of the instructional methods
  • All of the above

Q.13 Decision regarding the placement of students in suitable educational set up is called:

  • Selection decision
  • Placement decision
  • Classification decision
  • Diagnostic and remedial decision

Q. 14 Norm referenced assessment emphasis on:

  • Description of student’s performance
  • Discrimination among individuals
  • Both A&B
  • Neither A or nor B

Q. 15 Test items in which examines testers are required to select one out of two options in response to a statement are called:

  • Multiple choices
  • Matching items
  • Alternate response items
  • Restricted response items

Q. 16 An alternative response item is a special case of the ………….item format:

  • Multiple items
  • Matching items
  • Alternative response items
  • Restricted response items

Q. 17

The most common use of the true false items is in measuring the ability to:

  • Identify the correctness of statement of fact
  • Definition of terms
  • Statement of principles
  • All of the above

Q. 18

The multiple choices item consists of:

  • A problem and alternative solution
  • A problem and solution
  • Response and distracters
  • Options and distracters

Q. 19

The problem in multiple choices item is presented in:

  • Distracters
  • Options
  • Stem
  • Responses

Q. 20

In matching type test premises refer to the items:

  • For which match is sought
  • Selected for match
  • Describing the action
  • None of these

Q. 21

Matching type consists of:

  • Two columns
  • Three columns
  • Four columns
  • Five columns

Q. 22

 The homogenous material is used in single exercise of:

  • Matching tests
  • Multiple choice items
  • True false items
  • Alternative items

Q. 23 The correct or best answer of all options is sought in:

  • Matching tests
  • True false items
  • Multiple choice items
  • Alternative items

Q. 24

 The completion item requires the students to:

  • Answer a question
  • Complete a statement by filling in blank with the correct word or phase
  • Answer a question or to finish incomplete statement by filling in a blank with the correct word or phase
  • None of these

 Q. 25

The main advantage of using completion items is that these can:

  • Provide a wide sampling of content
  • Providing irrelevant clues
  • Be more time consuming
  • Me more difficult

Q. 26

Short answer items can measure efficiency student’s ability to:

  • Recall specific information
  • Analyze the information received
  • Synthesis the different bits of information
  • Evaluation the worth of something

Q. 27

 a brief written response is required in:

  • Short answer type items
  • Restricted response items
  • Extended response items
  • Completion type items

Q. 28

 Topics of limited scope are assessed by:

  • Short answer type items
  • Restricted response items
  • Extended response items
  • Completion type items

Q. 29

The students ability’s that to analyze assessed through:

  • Short answer type items         
  • Restricted response items
  • Extended response items
  • Completion type items

Q. 30

The students ability’s to respond complex situation is assessed through:

  • Short answer type items
  • Restricted response items
  • Extended response items
  • Completion type items

Q. 31

Integration and application of high level skills are stressed in:

  • Short answer type items
  • Short answer type items
  • Restricted response items
  • Extended response items
  • Completion type items

Q. 32

The action verb examine is used for:

  • Analysis
  • Understanding
  • Application
  • Synthesis

Q. 33

Items that requires a student to structure a long written response up to several paragraphs are called:

  • Essay
  • Short answer items
  • Completion type items
  • Fill in the blanks

Q. 34

Which of the following provides the best definition of authentic assessment? Authentic assessment asks students to:

  • Demonstrate understanding
  • Demonstrate knowledge and skills
  • Demonstrate intelligence within a real life situation
  • Demonstrate knowledge and skills within a real life situation

Q. 35

In essay type questions, the word “What, Who, Which and where’ are used tomeasure:

  • Lower mental process                                                                                          
  • Middle mental process
  • Higher mental process
  • None of these

Q. 36

In essay type questions, the word ‘contrast’ used to measure:

  • Lower mental process
  • Middle mental process
  • Higher mental process
  • None of these

Q. 37

Essay type items are classified as:

  • Extended response items
  • Restricted response items
  • Extended response and restricted response items
  • None of these

Q. 38

An extended response type of essay question permits a students to demonstrate its ability to:

  • Recall factual knowledge
  • Evaluate factual knowledge
  • Organize his ideas
  • All of these

Q. 39

Question that allow students to present their ideas in a coherent and logical way are called:

  • Extended response questions
  • Restricted response questions
  • Extended response and restricted response questions
  • None of above

Q. 40

Question that allow students to restrict to the from and scope of his answer are called:

  • Extended response questions
  • Restricted response questions
  • Extended response and restricted response questions
  • None of above

Q. 41

Test items requiring students to work or select correct or best answer are called:

  • Subjective questions
  • Essay type questions
  • Objective type questions
  • Short answer questions

Q. 42

The main characteristic of an objective test is:

  • Reliability of scores
  • Adequate content sampling
  • Measure lower level of cognitive abilities
  • All of these

Q. 43

Large number of questions are included in;

  • Essay tests
  • Subjective tests
  • Objective tests
  • Short answer test

Q. 44

Essay type question are:

  • Relatively easy to make
  • Relatively difficult to make
  • Relatively less time consuming in marking
  • None of these

Q. 45

Teacher made tests are meant to administer at:

  • Class level
  • School level
  • Board level
  • Inter board level

Q. 46

Teacher made tests cover a:

  • Wide content area
  • General content area
  • Narrow content area
  • All of above

Q. 47

Assessment tool that teachers use to monitor students progress are called:

  • Formative assessment tool
  • Summative assessment tool
  • Diagnostic assessment tool
  • Remedial assessment tool

Q. 48

Assessment tolls that teachers use to know the actual status of student’s cumulative learning are called:

  • Formative assessment tool
  • Summative assessment tool
  • Diagnostic assessment tool
  • Remedial assessment tool

Q. 49

Tests developed by a team of experts are termed as:

  • Teacher made tests
  • Standardized tests
  • Board tests
  • Published tests

Q. 50

A standardized achievement test has definite unique feature, including:

  • A fixed set of items
  • Specific directions for administration and scoring the tset
  • Norms based on representative group of individuals
  • All of the above

Q. 51

High technical quality is assured in:

  • Teacher made tests
  • Standardized tests
  • Board tests
  • Published tests

Q. 52

Direction for administrating and scoring are so precisely stated in:

  • Teacher made tests
  • Standardized tests
  • Board tests
  • Published tests

Q. 53

Norms are based on national samples of students in the grades in:

  • Teacher made tests
  • Standardized tests
  • Board tests
  • Published tests

Q. 54

Standardized tests are………….in nature:

  • Flexible
  • Changeable
  • Adaptable
  • Inflexible

Q. 55

National education assessment system (NEAS) has been established under ministery of education:

  • Regular program
  • Sector reform action plan
  • Social action plan
  • None of above

Q. 56

The purpose of national assessment to improve the quality of education through:

  • Providing information to policy makers for effective intervention
  • Providing information to develop education services
  • Monitoring the performance of the educational system
  • All of above

Q. 57

NEAS is planned as a sample based national assessment for:

  • Grade 4 to 8
  • Grade 6 to 8
  • Grade 5 to 8
  • Grade 6 to 8

Q.

58 PEC stands for:

  • Punjab education commission
  • Punjab examination commission
  • Punjab evaluation commission
  • Pakistan examination commission

Q. 59

Punjab examination is an autonomous body responsible for conducting examination for:

  • Grade 1 to 5
  • Grade 6 to 8
  • Grade 5 to 8
  • Grade 9 to 10

Q. 60

Punjab examination commission is an:

  • Autonomous body
  • Government body
  • Private body
  • Non government body

Q. 61

Results of PEC examination can be used for:

  • Identification of skills and concepts individual students have learnt
  • Diagnostic in structural needs
  • Monitoring academic growth over that time
  • All of above

Q. 62

If a test is consistent in its measurements whenever it is administered, the test is called:

  • A valid test
  • A reliable test
  • An adequate test
  • An economical test

Q. 63

When a test’s reliability is determined by administering it twice to the same group is called:

  • Test retest reliability
  • Split half reliability
  • Equivalent forms reliability
  • All of above

Q. 64

Split half method is used to measure……… of a test:

  • Stability
  • Equivalence
  • Internal consistency
  • External consistency

Q. 65

Kuder Richardson method measure:

  • Stability
  • Equivalence
  • Internal consistency
  • External consistency

Q. 66

The degree to which a test measure what it is supposed to measure is called:

  • Validity
  • Reliability
  • Objectivity
  • Adequate

Q. 67

sampling of content/subject matter is evaluated in:

  • Content validity
  • Construct validity
  • Concurrent validity
  • Predicative validity

Q. 68

Construct validity is determined of:

  • Achieve tests
  • Intelligence tests
  • Aptitude tests
  • None of above

Q. 69

If a test validity is determined of:

  • Achievement tests
  • Intelligent tests
  • Aptitude tests
  • None of these

Q. 70

When a test samples sufficient widely into subject to ascertain representativeness of scores with the total performance in the area measures is called:

  • Reliability
  • Adequacy
  • Objectivity
  • Practicality

Q. 71

The degree to which equally competent scores obtain the same results in a test is called:

  • Adequacy
  • Validity
  • Reliability
  • Objectivity

Q. 72

Prerequisite skills needed by students to succeed in a unit or course are evaluated by:

  • Placement assessment
  • Formative assessment
  • Diagnostic evaluation
  • Summative evaluation

Q.

73 pupil’s learning progress during instruction is assessed by:

  • Placement assessment
  • Formative assessment
  • Diagnostic evaluation
  • Summative evaluation

Q. 74

An objective has………components:

  • Two components
  • Three components
  • Four components
  • Five components

Q.

75 Bloom classified educational objectives into:

  • Two components
  • Three components
  • Four components
  • Five components
  • Q. 76
  • Domain of educational objectives that encompasses knowledge and intellectual development is called:
  • Cognitive domain
  • Affective domain
  • Psychomotor domain
  • Structural domain

Q. 77

Writing of test items on separate index cards is called:

  • Recording test items
  • Reviewing test items
  • Arranging test items
  • All of above

Q. 78

General directions for of tests should include:

  • Purpose of the test
  • Time allowed for answering
  • Procedure for recording the answer
  • All of the above

Q.

79 S=R-W is formula used to correct guessing in:

  • Multiple choice items
  • Alternative response items
  • Completion items
  • Fill in the blanks

Q.80

S=R-W/3 is a formula used to correct guessing in multiple chouice items having ……….option:

  • Two
  • Three
  • Four
  • Five

Q. 81

Relationship of a score with 100 is called:

  • Percentage
  • Mean score
  • Mean point average
  • Quartile

Q. 82

Raw score of tests are as:

  • Dada
  • Information
  • Finding
  • Conclusion

Q. 83

Data arranged in groups or class is called:

  • Grouped data
  • Frequency distribution
  • Both A&B
  • None of them

Q. 84

The number obtained by dividing the sum of the score by their number is called:

  • Mean
  • Median
  • Mode
  • None of these

Q. 85

The number dividing data into equal parts such a way that half of the total scores are less then that number whereas other half score are more than that number is called:

  • Mean
  • Median
  • Mode
  • None of these

Q. 86

The values that divide a set of scores into four wqual parts are called:

  • Quartiles
  • Percentiles
  • Percentile rank
  • None of these

Q. 87

The range is a measure of:

  • Central tendency
  • Dispersion
  • Chance
  • Probability

Q. 88

he total area under the normal curve is equal to:

  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4

Q. 89

Communication of educational outcomes is called:

  • Education reporting
  • Marking answer sheets
  • Grading students learning
  • All of these

Q. 90

Grades in assessment are:

  • Provide data for parents on their children’s progress
  • Certify promotional status and graduation
  • Serve as an incentive to do school lesson
  • All of these

Q. 91

The progress of converting qualities data into quantitative form is called;

  • Measurement
  • Assessment
  • Evaluation
  • All of above

Q. 92

Which process assign numbers to individual?

  • Measurement
  • Assessment
  • Evaluation
  • All of above

Q. 94

The process of obtaining a numerical description of the degree to which an individual processes particular characteristics is called:

  • Measurement
  • Assessment
  • Evaluation
  • All of above

Q. 95

The way of judging how well student is doing by looking at this work during educational process is:

  • Measurement
  • Assessment
  • Evaluation
  • All of above

Q. 96

The construction, administration and scoring od tests as the measurement process, interpreting such scores saying whether they are good or bad for a specific purpose is evolution. ‘this was stated by:

  • L.R. ay
  • Vahit S.R
  • Thorndike and Hagen
  • Stanley and Hopins

Q. 97

Assessment and evaluation are:

  • Continues process
  • Discrete process
  • Systematic process
  • Intermittent process

Q. 98

Which one is the process of finding the value of something?

  • Measurement
  • Assessment
  • Evaluation
  • All of above

Q. 99

Educational measurement refer to any device for the general study and practice of testing, scaling and appraising the outcomes of:

  • Educational process
  • Educational development
  • Educational model
  • Educational structure

Q. 100

The allocation of scores to the results of instruction and/or learning at school is called:

  • Educational measurement
  • Educational assessment
  • Educational model
  • Educational structure

Q. 101

Which of the following differentiated between educational measurement and evolution:

  • Stanley and Hopkins
  • William Wiersma
  • Norman E. Gronlund
  • Thorndike and Hagen

Q. 102

The Process of characterizing and appraising aspects of an educational process is known:

  • Educational measurement
  • Educational assessment
  • Educational model
  • Educational structure

Q. 103

Stability reliability is also called:

  • Re test reliability
  • Inter rater reliability
  • Parallel reliability
  • None of these

Q. 104

Which type of evaluation is done for indentifying the problems of students?

  • Summative
  • Placement
  • Formative
  • Diagnostic

Q. 105

Which type of evaluation is done during studies?

  • Formative
  • Summative
  • Placement
  • Diagnostic

Q. 106

The monitoring learning progress provides feed back to reinforce and correct learning in which type of evolution?

  • Formative
  • Summative
  • Placement
  • Diagnostic

Q. 107

Which type of evaluation is done at the end of the program?

  • Formative
  • Summative
  • Placement
  • Diagnostic

Q. 108

Which type of evaluation determined the student’s prerequisite skills to begin instruction:

  • Formative
  • Summative
  • Placement
  • Diagnostic

Q. 109

Measure of performance which interprets an individual’s relative standing in some kowon group is:

  • Norm reference
  • Criterion reference
  • Homothetic
  • Idiographic

Q. 110

Measure of student’s performance against a certain criterion as:

  • Norm reference
  • Criterion reference
  • Homothetic
  • Idiographic

Q. 111

The purpose of summative evaluation is to information about:

  • Effectiveness of teaching
  • Problem of students
  • Essentials of course content
  • None of these:

Q.

112 ………….refers to the process of administrating scoring and interpreting tests:

  • Testing
  • Training
  • Teaching
  • Experiment

 Q. 113

Measurement may be defined as the act of assigning numbers or symbols to characteristics of objects (as well as people, event or other things) according to:

  • Test
  • Scale
  • Rule
  • None of these

Q. 114

Which method criteria are fixed:

  • Grading
  • Normal curves
  • Pass/fail
  • Percentage

Q.

115 Which is not typically considered when evaluating the technical quality of a test?

  • Personality
  • Reliability
  • Validity
  • Both A&B

Q.

116 A good test has a:

  • Clearly defined purpose
  • Standard and specific content
  • Set of scoring rules
  • All of above

Q. 117

Test is a systematic process of collecting:

  • Data
  • Information
  • Both A&B
  • None of these

Q. 118

Diagnostic tests may be distinguished from evaluation tests in that diagnostic tests are typically designed to:

  • Pinpoint difficulties
  • Make pass/fail type of discussion
  • Measure achievement
  • All of above

Q.

119 Tests scores are frequently expressed as numbers and statistical tools are frequently used to:

  • Describe test scores
  • Make inference from test scores
  • Draw conclusions about test scores
  • All of above

Q. 120

In which types of test, we can measure a maximum proportion of the content:

  • Subjective type test
  • Objective type test
  • Psychological test
  • Both A&B

Q. 121

Which type of test to judge the specific knowledge of the learner within the whole contet?

  • Subjective type test
  • Objective type test
  • Psychological test
  • Both A&B

Q. 122

Which of the following types of items is not a selection items?

  • True false
  • Multiple choice items
  • Matching exercise
  • Short answer

Q. 123

Which of the following is an example of supply response item?

  • True false
  • Multiple choice items
  • Matching exercise
  • Short answer

Q. 124

Criterion referenced tests:

  • Are referred to as domain referenced tests
  • Are referred to as domain referenced method
  • Have derive from the standards of the test developer
  • All of above

Q. 125

The difference between a speed test and a power test has to with:

  • Whether or not the range has been restricted
  • The time limit allotted for completion of the items
  • Both A&B
  • None of these

Q. 126

which test is designed to be administered to one person at a time?

  • Individual test
  • Personality test
  • Group test
  • Performance test

Q. 127

The test having clear and unambiguous scoring criterion is known as:

  • Objective type test
  • Subjective type test
  • Essay type test
  • All of above

Q. 128

which type of test typically compromise two columns:

  • Multiple choice items
  • Matching exercise
  • True false items
  • None of these

Q. 129

Which test require the students to match  series of response with corresponding items in stimulate list?

  • Multiple choice items
  • Matching exercise
  • True false items
  • None of these

Q. 130

A list of three or more choices from which the exams is required to choose the correct one is given in:

  • Multiple choice items
  • Matching exercise
  • True false items
  • None of these

Q. 131

Short answer items are answered by word, phrase, number or symbol and is a complex from of objective type was said by:

  • Gronlund
  • Aggarwal
  • W. Best
  • Gillbert

Q. 132

Which type of items format requires the students to structure a rather long written response up to several paragraphs?

  • Short answer items
  • Essay type items
  • Story type items
  • All of them

Q.

133 ……….tests are commonly used to attempts as measuring the intelligence of children and mainly with abstract intelligence:

  • Vocal
  • Verbal
  • Language
  • Non verbal

Q. 134

Item difficulty analysis is not appropriate to:

  • Personality test
  • Achievement tests
  • Aptitude tests
  • Objective class test

Q. 135

The test in which coordination of color, sound and visual is measurable called:

  • Mechanical ability tests
  • Sensory ability tests
  • Spatial ability tests
  • None of these

Q. 136

Which type of test is helpful in giving educational and vocational guidance to students:

  • Achievement
  • Machenical aptitude
  • Diagnostic aptitude
  • Scholastic aptitude

Q. 137

Group tests were introduced in:

  • Germany
  • Switzerland
  • USA
  • Russia

Q. 138

The tests designed to predict future performance in some activity are:

  • Intelligence
  • Achievement
  • Knowledge
  • Aptitude

Q. 139

Medical tests are included in:

  • Intelligence tests
  • Performance tests
  • Aptitude tests
  • Achievement tests

Q. 140

Aptitude test help to measure:

  • Probability of success
  • Intellectual level
  • Problems of students
  • Both A&B

Q. 141

Spatial aptitude tests are generally used for those who choose a career in:

  • Special education
  • Swimming
  • Sports
  • Space

Q. 142

How much students have learned through instruction is determined through:           

  • Intelligence tests
  • Diagnostic tests
  • Aptitude tests
  • Achievement tests

Q. 143

Support of schools achievement tests that faithfully reflect what is taught in the school is reflected in support of:

  • Standardized measurement procedures
  • Examination require rote memory
  • Curriculum based assessment
  • All of these

Q. 144

The founder of the concept of IQ is:

  • William Sturn
  • Alfred Binet
  • William James
  • Spearman

Q. 145

Concept of IQ was presented by Binet in:

  • 1905
  • 1909
  • 1911
  • 1912

Q. 146

An IQ test does not provide:

  • High internal reliability
  • Good prediction learning experiences
  • High internal consistency
  • Good validity

Q.147

In contrast to achievement tests, aptitude tests measure:

  • Natural potential
  • Less formal learning experiences
  • Meaningful behavior
  • All of above

Q. 148

Symbolic behavior of a person means:

  • Meaningful behavior
  • Convert behavior
  • Overt behavior
  • Significant behavior

Q. 149

Which psychologist developed a questionnaire consisting 116 questions to judge the introvert and extrovert persons?

  • Woodworth
  • Agarwal
  • P.K. Sinah
  • John W. Best

Q. 150

Which behavior can be assessed in a great many ways, depending upon the situation in which a person finds himself?

  • Intellectual behavior
  • Responding behavior
  • Effective behavior
  • All of these

Q. 151

American psychologist Terman introduced the Binet test for general use in……… of brightness and dullness:

  • Highlighting
  • Differentiating
  • Similarly
  • Establishment

Q. 152

According to ……….an English statisticians intelligence consists of general ability what works in conjunction with special abilities:

  • Spearman
  • Binet
  • John Dewey
  • William James

Q. 153

If there is a problem of sitting arrangements during lecture, it is considered inappropriate:

  • Psychological environment
  • Administration
  • Guidance
  • None of these

Q. 154

The process of developing a test in five stages beginning with test conceptualization what is the fifth stage of this process?

  • Item analysis
  • Test structure
  • Test revision
  • Test construction

Q. 155

Item sampling is a source of error variance within the context of:

  • Test construction
  • Test administration
  • Test scoring
  • All of these

Q. 156

the two most important characteristics of a standardized test are:

  • Reliability and validity
  • Reliability and accuracy
  • Accuracy and equality
  • Practicality and validity

Q. 157

The Edwards personal preference schedule is a personality test features positive scoring. This means that the strength of various needs of the test taker may be compared:

  • To the strength of the needs of the test takers
  • To the strength of the needs both same test taker
  • Both A&B
  • None of these

Q. 158

What is a good item? The answer to this question:

  • Can never be made with certainly
  • Can be made with reference to item analysis data
  • Much like beauty is in the eyes of the beholder
  • All of these

Q. 159

Pilot work is typically necessary in test development to:

  • Evaluate the utility of including specific items
  • Gather suggestions for data on all test takers
  • Transform ratio level data into interval level data
  • All of above

Q. 160

A good measure what is purpose of measure and does son in a relatively consistent fashion. This statement is a reference to the:

  • Degree to which a tool of assessment is precise
  • Degree to which a tool of assessment is not concise
  • Technical or psychological quality of a test   
  • Computer administrated versions of a paper and pencil test

Q. 161

A test developer intends on obtaining a distribution of scores that approximates the normal curve may statistically:

  • Normalize the distribution
  • Regress the distribution
  • Digest the distribution
  • All of the above

Q. 162

Which a source of error variance?

  • Test constriction
  • Test administration
  • Test scoring
  • All of above

Q. 163

The results of all tests may be affected by many factors inherent in the testing condition, the child’s background of………. and other favorable or unfavourable elements:

  • Interest
  • Intelligence
  • Experience
  • Ability

Q. 164

The degree to which an instrument measure what is supposed to be measuring is its:

  • Validity
  • Internal consistency
  • Sensitivity
  • Equivalence

Q. 165

The degree to which a test measure intended hypotheticl ckontsruct is called:

  • Predictive validity
  • Content validity
  • Construct validity
  • Concurrent validity

Q. 166

Which is the process of gathering evidence supporting ionferences based test scores?

  • Validation
  • Validity
  • Reliability
  • Prediction

Q. 167

Which of these following is not a type of validity index of a research instruments?

  • Predicative validity
  • Concurrent validity
  • Content validity
  • Construct
  • Validity

Q. 168

The adequacy of an instrument in differentiating between the performance or behavior on some future criterion is termed as:

  • Predicative validity
  • Concurrent validity
  • Content validity
  • Construct
  • Validity

Q. 169

Which of the following is a test validation method that determines wether a test measure certain traits that are important in performing a job or not?

  • Concept validity
  • Criterion validity
  • Construct validity
  • Content validity

Q. 170

Which of the following is not a procedure for establishing construct validity of an instrument?

  • Known group technique
  • Factor analysis
  • Combach’s alpha
  • None of these

Q. 171

Which of the following is a type of criterion related validity evidence?

  • Concurrent evidence
  • Predicative
  • Evidence
  • Internal consistency
  • Both A&B

Q. 172

The extent to which we can generalize the results of a study to other participants is called:

  • Sampling validity
  • External validity
  • Construct validity
  • Internal validity

Q. 173

Which type of validity refers to the degree to which you can infer that the relationship between two variable is casual?

  • Internal validity
  • External validity
  • Population validity
  • Statistical conclusion validity

Q. 174

Discriminate evidence of construct validity is otherwise known as:

  • Discriminate validity
  • Convergent validity
  • Predicate validity
  • None of these

Q. 175

Test retest is the more conservative method to estimate:

  • Validity
  • Reliability
  • Accuracy
  • Correctness

Q. 176

The term that refers to a judgment of the extent to which scores from a test can be used to infer, or predicate the examinees performance in some activity is:

  • Content reliability                     
  • Face validity
  • Criterion related validity
  • Inference validity

Q. 177

The degree of consistency with which an instrument measures the attribute, it is supposed to be measuring is called:

  • Validity
  • Reliability
  • Sensitivity
  • Objectivity

Q. 178

Which of the following is not a type of reliability?

  • Test-retest
  • Split half
  • Content
  • Internal consistency

Q. 179

The reliability of a measuring tool has not……. Aspect:

  • Stability
  • Internal consistency
  • Efficiency
  • Equivalence

Q. 180

In general, as test length increases, test reliability:

  • Increase
  • Decrease
  • Both A&B
  • None of these

Q. 181

If a measure is consistence over multiple occasions, is has:

  • Inter rather reliability
  • Construct validity
  • Internal validity
  • Test related reliability

Q. 182

The spearman Brown formula is used to estimate:

  • Test retest reliability
  • Internal consistency
  • Equivalence
  • Validity

Q. 183

The extent to which the same results are obtained opn repeated administrations of the instruments is termed as:

  • Internal consistency
  • Validity
  • Sensitivity
  • Stability

Q. 184

The stability index of measuring tool is derived through procedures that evaluate:

  • Inter rater reliability
  • Internal consistency
  • Crombach’s alpha
  • Test-retest reliability

Q. 185

It is most appropriate to use the Spearman Brown formula to estimate:

  • Test-retest reliability
  • Equivalence
  • Validity
  • Split half reliability

Q. 186

Measurement reliability refers to the……of the scores:

  • Consistency
  • Dependency
  • Accuracy
  • Comprehensiveness

Q. 187

What is the procedure instruments used for measuring sample of behavior?

  • Test
  • Measurement
  • Assessment
  • Evaluation

Q. 188

Which term is broader meaning?

  • Aims
  • Objectives
  • Instructional objectives
  • Specific objectives

Q. 198

The term limited to quantitative description of pupils is:

  • Evaluation
  • Measurement
  • Test
  • Examination

Q. 190

Example of psychomotor domain is that student:

  • Demonstrates awareness to environmental pollution
  • Performs an experiment
  • Can narrate a story
  • Can compare results of two experiments

Q. 191

Procedure use to determine person’s abilities are:

  • Maximum referenced test
  • Criterion
  • Typical performance test
  • Norm referenced test

Q. 192

The purpose of evaluation is to:

  • Make judgment about the quality of something
  • Assign a mark or score to a student
  • Measure the achievement of students
  • Test the student in a subject

Q. 193

What objective relates to effective domain?

  • Student paint a picture
  • Student can draw a graph
  • Student values honest
  • Student can write a letter

Q. 194

In norm referenced test the comparison is between:

  • Groups
  • Individuals
  • Areas
  • Interests

Q. 195

In which question marking will be more reliable?

  • Completion
  • Short answer
  • Completion
  • Essay

Q. 196

facility values of less than 0.20 means:

  • Item is too short
  • Item is too hard
  • Item is acceptable
  • Item is hard

Q. 197

Objective type question have advantage over essay type because such questions:

  • Are easy to prepare
  • Are easy to solve
  • Are easy to mark
  • Test criteria thinking

Q. 198

The purpose of the evolution is to make:

  • Decision’
  • Prediction
  • Judgment
  • Opinion

Q. 199

Ability to bring together scientific ideas to form a unique idea:

  • Application
  • Analysis
  • Synthesis
  • Evaluation

Q. 200

Discrimination value of more than 0.4 means:

  • Item is good
  • Item is acceptable
  • Item is weak
  • Item discriminating negativity

Q. 201

Ability to develop a life style based upon the preferred value system is:

  • Responding
  • Valuing
  • Organizing
  • Characterizing

Q. 202

The purpose of evaluation is to make judgment about educational:

  • Quantity
  • Quality
  • Time period
  • Age

Q. 203

Which form of evaluation monitors learning progress?

  • Placement evaluation
  • Formative evaluation
  • Diagnostic evaluation
  • Summative evaluation

Q. 204

A formal and systematic procedure of getting information is:

  • Assessment
  • Test
  • Measurement
  • Evaluation

Q. 205

Test involving the construction of criterion patterns or solve problems in terms of concrete materials are called:

  • Intelligence test
  • Performance test
  • Scholastic aptitude test
  • Interest tests

Q. 206

In multiple choice items, the stem of the items should be:

  • Large
  • Small
  • Meaningful
  • Relative

Q. 207

Which appropriate verb you use to make an objective behavioral?

  • To known
  • To appreciate
  • To understand
  • To construct

Q. 208

Example of cognitive domain is:

  • Describe a topic
  • Develop an X-Ray film
  • Type letter
  • Test responsibility for tools

Q. 209

Which ability is at the highest level of hierarchy?

  • Understanding
  • Application
  • Evaluation
  • Analysis

Q. 210

What is the process of obtaining numerical values?

  • Test
  • Application
  • Evaluation
  • Measurement

Q. 211

Students can design a laboratory according to certain specification. In which category of objective?

  • Analysis
  • Synthesis
  • Evaluation
  • Knowledge

Q. 212

A sum of questions is called:

  • Test
  • Testing
  • Assessment
  • Examination

Q. 213

The number of taxonomy of education abjectives is:

  • Two                                        
  • Three
  • Four
  • Five

Q. 214

Objectives representing the purpose of instruction of a teacher are called:

  • Performance
  • Instructional
  • Attainment
  • Terminal objectives

Q. 215

The main advantage of essay type is:

  • The can measure complex learning outcomes which cannot be measured with other types of questions
  • The students can guess the answers
  • Are essay to mark
  • Can diagnose the learning difficulties of students

Q. 216

In which scale numbers are assigned to each trait?

  • Description
  • Numerical scale
  • Behavioral scale
  • Graphic scale

Q. 217

The first step in measurement is:

  • Decision of what to measure
  • Development of the test
  • Administering the test
  • Marking of the test

Q. 218

Running description of active behavior of a student observed by the teacher is:

  • Anecdotal record
  • Autobiography
  • Interview
  • Questionnaire

Q. 219

A test popular with class room teacher is:

  • True false
  • Completion test
  • Matching items
  • Multiple choices

Q. 220

It is difficult to assess the personality of an individual because:

  • The personality is very complex
  • Regular units of measurement to personality
  • Some children are born with zero personality
  • Exact tools of assessment of personality

Q. 221

The purpose of formative evaluation is:

  • Monitoring progress of students
  • Selecting students
  • Promotion to next grade
  • Check final status

Q. 222

Differential aptitude test battery

(DATB) is a test to measure:

  • Special abilities of children
  • General aptitude
  • Intelligence
  • Interest

Q. 223

The highest level of cognitive domain is:

  • Synthesis
  • Analysis
  • Comprehension
  • Evaluation

Q. 224

Frequently used tools of summative evaluation are:

  • Test
  • Teacher observation
  • Daily assignment
  • Oral questioning

Q. 225

Which of the following statement is a criterion referenced interpretation:

  • Asjad can state Newton’s 2nd law of motion
  • Dawood GRE score is 350
  • Rishma percentile in math test is 35
  • Ahmad got highest score

Q. 226

then most commonly used guessing correction formula to predict and control is:

  • S=R-W
  • S=R-W/2-1
  • S=R-W/N-1
  • S=R-W/1

Q. 227 The summative evaluation is:

  • Diagnostic
  • Certifying judgment
  • Continuous
  • On going

Q. 228

The diofference between maximum and mnimum values is:

  • Mean
  • Mode
  • Range
  • Quartiles

Q. 229

The number of score lying in a class interval is:

  • Midpoint
  • Quartiles
  • Class boundaries
  • Q Frequencies

Q. 230

A multiple choice question is composed of question or statement refers as:

  • Stem
  • Distracter
  • Foil
  • Response

Q. 231

What is the process of determining the value or worth of anything?

  • Test
  • Measurement
  • Assessment
  • Evaluation

Q. 232

Item difficulty refers to:

  • Percentage of students who got the item correct
  • Percentage of students who attempt the item
  • Percentage of students got an item incorrect
  • Percentage of students who did not attempt the item

Q. 233

To assess achievement at the end of instructions is:

  • Placement assessment
  • Formative assessment
  • Summative assessment
  • Diagnostic assessment

Q. 234

In a norm referenced test which item is best? Whose:

  • Item difficulty is near zero
  • Item difficulty is near 100
  • Item difficulty is near 70
  • Item difficulty is near 50

Q. 235

Which question has increasing objectivity of marking:

  • Unstructured essays
  • Structured essays
  • Short answer
  • Multiple type questions

Q. 236

The most widely used format on standardized test in USA is:

  • Multiple choices
  • Essay type
  • Matching list
  • Short answer

Q. 237

Which questions are difficult to mark reliability:

  • Multiple type questions
  • Short answer
  • Structured essays
  • Unstructured essays

Q. 238

Projective techniques are used to measure:

  • Aptitude
  • Intelligence
  • Knowledge
  • Personality

Q.239

test meant for prediction on a criterion is called:

  • Achievement test
  • Aptitude test
  • Personality test
  • None standardizes test

Q. 240 Kuder Richardson method is used to estimate:

  • Reliability
  • Validity
  • Objectivity
  • Usability

Q. 241

Which one is vast of al scope?

  • Test
  • Measurement
  • Assessment
  • Evaluation

Q. 242

Value that divides the data into two equal parts is:

  • Mean
  • Median
  • Mode
  • Mean deviation

Q. 243

The test measure what we intend to measure. This quality of the test is called:

  • Validity
  • Reliability
  • Usability
  • Objectivity

Q. 244

the process by which another group or person’s beliefs are accepted can be defined as:

  • Affective taxonomy
  • Analysis
  • Synthesis
  • Evaluation

Q. 245

Which is the right sequence?

  • Test, assessment, evaluation, measurement
  • Assessment, measurement, evaluation, test
  • Test, measurement, assessment, evaluation
  • Evaluation, test, measurement, assessment

Q. 246

The length of a test is an important factor in obtaining a representative:

  • Mode
  • Sample
  • Group
  • Factor

Q. 247

Median of 1, 6, 4, 5, 2, 3 is:

  • 2
  • 2.5
  • 3
  • 3.5

Q. 248

The test is made to compare the performance of student with other students is called:

  • Criterion reference
  • Norm reference
  • Achievement
  • Diagnostic

Q. 249

The test is made to compare the performance of students with the other students is called:

  • Criterion reference
  • Norm reference
  • Achievement
  • Diagnostic

Q. 250

When is summative evaluation is used:

  • At the start of the program
  • At the end of the program
  • during the program
  • All the times

Q. 251

The appearance of normal curve resemble with:

  • U
  • Bell
  • V
  • Skewness

Q. 252

Which one is used to fined out permanent difficulties in learning?

  • Summative evaluation
  • Diagnostic evaluation
  • Formative evaluation
  • None of these

Q. 253

How many domains have educational objectives been divide into?

  • Two
  • Three
  • Four
  • Five

Q. 254

When was taxonomy of educational objectives presented by Bloom?

  • 1946
  • 1956
  • 1966
  • 1976

Q. 255

Who presented the classification of cognitive domain?

  • Benjamin S. Boolm
  • Skinner
  • Karthwol
  • Simpson

Q. 256

How many subgroups to cognitive domain have?

  • Three
  • Four
  • Five
  • Six

Q. 257

Which is placed at the lowest level of learning in cognitive domain?

  • Comprehension
  • Application
  • Knowledge
  • Synthesis

Q. 258

Which is placed at the highest level of learning in cognitive domain:

  • Evaluation
  • Synthesis
  • Analysis
  • Application

Q. 259

Which is the right sequence of subgroups of cognitive domain?

  • Knowledge, comprehension, application, synthesis, analysis, evaluation
  • Knowledge, comprehension, application, evaluation, analysis, synthesis
  • Knowledge, comprehension, evaluation, application, analysis, synthesis
  • Knowledge, comprehension, application, analysis, synthesis, evaluation

Q. 260

What is knowing / memorizing and recalling concerned with:

  • Comprehension
  • Application
  • Knowledge
  • Evaluation

Q. 261

What is the ability to grasp the meaning of the material:

  • Comprehension
  • Application
  • Knowledge
  • Evaluation

Q. 262

What is the ability to use previous learned material in new situation:

  • Comprehension
  • Application
  • Knowledge
  • Evaluation

Q. 263

What is the ability to break down material into component parts to know its organizational structure:

  • Comprehension
  • Application
  • Analysis
  • Synthesis

Q. 264

What is the ability to put ideas together to form a new whole:

  • Evaluation
  • Synthesis
  • Analysis
  • Application

Q. 265

What is the ability to know worth or value of material:

  • Analysis
  • Application
  • Knowledge
  • Evaluation

Q. 266

Which domain does reflect the intellectual skills:

  • Cognitive domain
  • Affective domain
  • Psychomotor domain
  • None of these

Q. 26

Which domain does reflect attitudes, values and interests:

  1. Cognitive domain
  2. Affective domain
  3. Psychomotor domain
  4. None of these

Q. 268

Which domain is concerned with physical and motor skills:

  • Cognitive domain
  • Affective domain
  • Psychomotor domain
  • None of these

Q. 269

Which is the focus of cognitive domain:

  • Physical and motor skills
  • Intellectual skills
  • Attitudes and interests
  • None of these

Q. 270

Who classified the affective domain of educational objectives:

  • Benjamin Bool
  • Simpson
  • Karthwhol
  • Burner

Q. 271

How many sub-groups is affected domain divide into:

  • Four
  • Five
  • Six
  • Seven

Q. 272

Which is placed at the lowest level of learning in affective domain:

  • Attending
  • Responding
  • Organization
  • Characterization

Q. 273

Which is placed at the highest level of learning in affective domain:

  • Attending
  • Responding
  • Organization
  • Characterization

Q.274

Which is right order of sub-groups of affective domain:

  • Attending, responding, valuing, characterization, organization
  • Attending, responding, characterization, valuing, organization
  • Attending, valuing, responding, organization, characterization
  • Attending, responding, valuing, organization, characterization

Q. 275

Name of ability that shows willingness to attend to particular phenomenon:

  • Attending/Receiving
  • Responding
  • Valuing          
  • Organization

Q. 276

Which sub-group of affective domain focuses on active participation:

  • Attending/Receiving
  • Responding
  • Valuing
  • Organization

Q. 277

Bringing together different values into a consistent value system is:

  • Attending/Receiving
  • Responding
  • Valuing
  • Organization

Q. 278

Which sub0group of  affective domain focuses on adoption of a value system as part of life style:

  • Responding
  • Valuing
  • Organization
  • Characterization

Q. 279

When was the psychomotor domain classified by Simpson:

  • 1962
  • 1972
  • 1982
  • 1992

Q. 280

When was affective domain divided into subgroups by Karthwhol:

  • 1954
  • 1964
  • 1974
  • 1984

Q. 281

How many subgroups was psychomotor domain divided by Simpson?

  • Four
  • Five
  • Six
  • Seven

Q. 282

What is the characteristic of behavioral objectives:

  • Observable and immeasurable
  • None- Observable and immeasurable
  • Observable and measurable
  • None of these

Q. 283

Which is the right sequence of sub-group of psychomotor domain:

  • Perception, set, guided response, mechanism, complex overt response, adaption, organization
  • Perception, complex overt response, set, guided response, mechanism, adaption, organization
  • Set, organization, guided response, mechanism, complex overt response, adaption, perception
  • Guided response, mechanism, adaption, set, adaption, organization, complex overt response

Q. 284

What is the alternative name of the “Table of specification”?            

  • Test blue print
  • Test construction
  • Test scoring
  • Test reporting

Q. 285

Where does “able of specification” help?

  • Test developing
  • Test administration
  • Test scoring
  • Test reporting

Q. 286

What is the purpose of Table of specification?

  • To develop integration between objectives and contents
  • To develop a balanced test
  • To helps the teacher to sampling question from all contents
  • All of above

Q. 287

How is table of specification prepared?

  • By developing help of instructional contents
  • Be the draft of course of draft contents
  • By prepare two way charts
  • Al of above

Q. 288

Which one is the supply type test item:

  • True/false item
  • Matching item
  • M.C.Q items
  • Completion items

Q. 289

Which one is alternative response item?

  • True/false item
  • Matching item
  • M.C.Q items
  • Completion items

Q. 290

How many columns matching items have?

  • One
  • Two
  • Four
  • Five

Q. 291

The item in the column for which a match is sought is called:

  • Premise
  • Response
  • Distracter
  • None of these

Q.292

The ability of identifying relationship between two things is demonstrated by item

  • True / false
  • Completion item
  • Matching item
  • Short questions

Q. 293

What is the statement of problem called in MCQs:

  • Stem
  • Option
  • Distracter
  • Short answer

Q. 294

What is the list suggested in MCQs is called?

  • Answer
  • Distracter
  • Response
  • None of these

Q. 295

What is the correct option in MCQs is called?

  • Answer
  • Distracter
  • Response
  • None of these

Q. 296

What are the incorrect option in MCQs is called?

  • Answer
  • Distracter
  • Response
  • None of these

Q. 297

Which is the most widely applicable test item:

  • Short answer
  • Completion
  • Matching
  • MCQs

Q. 298

What is the type of essay item which content in answer are limited:

  • Restricted response questions
  • Extended response questions
  • MCQ
  • None of these

Q. 299

The ability to select, organize, integrate and evaluate ideas is semonstrated by:

  • Restricted response
  • Extended response question
  • MCQ
  • True/ False

Q. 300

What will be the score of a student getting 70 correct and 90 incorrect answer True/ False items by applying guessing correction formulas:

  • 30
  • 40
  • 50
  • 60

Q. 301

What will be the score of a student getting 70 correct and 30 incorrect answer MCQ itens having four option by applying guessing correction formula:

  • 30
  • 40
  • 50
  • 60

Q. 302

Where is the analysis of items cecessary:

  • Teacher made test
  • Standardized test
  • Both   
  • None of above

Q. 303

Which one is the type of test by purpose:

  • Essay type test
  • Standardized test
  • Criterion reference test
  • Norm referenced test 

Q. 304

Which is the type of the test by method:

  • Essay type test
  • Standardized test
  • Objective referenced test
  • Norm referenced test

Q. 305

Name the test in which student’s performance is compared with others students:

  • Criterion referenced test
  • Objective referenced test
  • Norm referenced test
  • None of these

Q. 306

Name the test in which student’s performance is compared with clearly defined learning tasks:

  • Criterion referenced test
  • Objective referenced test
  • Norm referenced test
  • None of these

Q. 307

What is tests that measure learning outcome of students:

  • Aptitude test
  • Intelligence test
  • Achievement test
  • Diagnostic test

Q. 308

What are the tests designed to predict future performance in same activity:

  • Aptitude test
  • Intelligence test
  • Achievement test
  • Diagnostic test

Q 309

Who was the founder of modern intelligent tests:

  • Alferd binet
  • Terman
  • Stern
  • Gulford

Q. 310

Who presented the formula to determine IQ:

  • Alferd binet
  • Terman
  • Stern
  • Gulford

Q. 311

What will be the IQ of a student having same physical and mental age:

  • 90
  • 100
  • 110
  • 120

Q. 312

What will be the IQ of a student having twelve years mental and age ten years physical age:

  • 90
  • 100
  • 110
  • 120

Q. 313

What is the quality of test that measure “ What it claims measure”

  • Reliability
  • Validity
  • Objectivity
  • Differentiability

Q. 314

What is the characteristics of a test to discriminate between high achievers and low achievers:

  • Reliability
  • Validity
  • Objectivity
  • Differentiability

Q. 315

If the scoring of the test is not effected by any factor, quality of test is called:

  • Reliability
  • Validity
  • Objectivity
  • Differentiability / Discriminate

Q. 316

What is the quality of test to give same scores when administrated at different occasions:

  • Reliability
  • Validity
  • Objectivity
  • Differentiability

Q. 317

If the sample of the question in the test is sufficiently large enough, the quality of est is:

  • Validity
  • Usability
  • Adequacy
  • Objectivity

Q. 318

The quality of test showing case of time, cost, administration and interpretation is called:

  • Validity
  • Usability
  • Adequacy
  • Objectivity

Q. 319

Item analysis focuses to find out:

  • Facility index
  • Discrimination power
  • Effectiveness of distracters
  • All of above

Q. 320

What facility index (Difficulty level) of an item determine?

  • Ease or difficulty
  • Discrimination power
  • Effectiveness of distracters
  • All of above

Q. 321

high and low achievers are sorted out by:

  • Ease or difficulty
  • Discrimination power
  • Effectiveness of distracters
  • All of above

Q. 322

Test item is acceptable when index / difficulty level ranges from:

  • 20-60%
  • 30-70%
  • 40-80%
  • 10-50%

Q. 323

Test item is very easy when vale of facility index / difficulty level is less than:

  • 70%
  • 30%
  • 40%
  • 50%

Q. 324

Test item is very difficult when vale of facility index / difficulty level is less than:

  • 0.31-1
  • 0.2-1
  • 0.1-1
  • 10-1

Q. 325

discrimination power of an item is acceptable when its value ranges from:

  • 0.30-1                                                                     
  • 0.2-1
  • 0.1-1
  • 10-1

Q. 26

Test item discriminates 100% when its value for discrimination is:

  • 1
  • 0.1
  • 0.01
  • 10

Q. 327

Tets item discriminates 100% when its value for discrimination is:

  • 1
  • .1
  • 0.01
  • 10

Q. 328

Good distracter is that which:

  • Attracts high achievers more than low achievers
  • Attracts low achievers more that high achievers
  • Attracts quality high and low achievers
  • Does not attract

Q. 329

Bad distracter is that which:

  • Attracts high achievers, more than low achievers
  • Does not attract all any students
  • Attracts high achievers and low achievers quality
  • All above

Q.330

What is the type of interview when interviewee is one:

  • Individual interview
  • Single interview
  • Structural interview
  • Focused interview

Q. 331

What is interview called when interviewee is more than one:

  • Group interview
  • Panel interview
  • Structural interview
  • Focused interview

Q. 332

What is the planned interview is called:

  • Group interview
  • Panel interview
  • Structural interview
  • Focused interview

Q. 333

Discussion is concentrated on one problem in:

  • Group interview       
  • Panle interview
  • Structural interview
  • Focused interview

Q. 334

What the collection of productive work called used to evaluate the performance of students:

  • Port folio
  • Project
  • Assignment
  • All above

Q. 335

What is the type of marking and reporting system:

  • Traditional marking system
  • Pass-fail system
  • Letters to the parent   
  • All of above

Q. 336                                                                                                                                    

According to exmaniation reform 2002, what will be the grade of students getting 65% marks:

  • A-grade
  • B+-grade
  • B-grade
  • C-grade

Q. 337

When were examination system under examination reform 2002 is for classes:

  • 2000
  • 2001
  • 2002
  • 2003

Q. 338

The continues assessment system under examination reform 2002 is for calss:

  • 1-5
  • 1-8
  • 1-10
  • 1-12

Q. 339

Under examination reform 2002, how many times would a student’s be evaluated per anum:

  • 3 times
  • 4 times
  • 5 times
  • 6 times

Q. 340

What is the no. of stages in continuous assessment under examination reform 2002:

  • 3
  • 4
  • 5
  • 6

Q. 341

Under examination reform 2002, there was no pass-fail system upto class:

  • 1-5
  • 1-8
  • 1-10
  • 1-12

Q. 342

What was that %age of knowledge and comprehension questions under examination reforms 2002:

  • 25%
  • 50%
  • 75%
  • 100%

Q. 343

What was that %age of application questions under examination reforms 2002:

  • 25%
  • 50%
  • 75%
  • 100%

Q. 344

What was that %age of analysis, synthesis and evaluation questions under examination reforms 2002:

  • 25%
  • 50%
  • 75%
  • 100%

Q. 345

under the examination reforms 2002, there was no pass/fail system for classes:

  • 1-5      
  • 1-8
  • 1-10
  • 1-12

Q. 346

Under the changes in examination reforms 2002, how many stages internal assessment system consisted of:

  • 2
  • 4
  • 6
  • 8

Q. 347

Under the changes in examination reforms 2002, what was the proportion of objectives and subjective questions:

  • 50-50%
  • 40-60%
  • 60-40%
  • 25-75%

Q. 348

What is the average of 20,21,22,23:

  • 20
  • 21
  • 21.5
  • 22

Q. 349

What is the mode of 5,6,7,2,5,7:

  • 2
  • 5
  • 6
  • 7

Q. 350

What is median of 3,4,5,7,1,9,2,6,8:

  • 1
  • 3
  • 5
  • 7

Q. 351

What is the median of 1,6,4,5,2,3:

  • 2
  • 2.5
  • 3
  • 3.5

Q. 352

Under examination reforms 2002, parents will be given report of continues assessment:

  • Monthly
  • Quarterly
  • After six months
  • Annually

Q. 353

Item with difficulty index of 5% is:

  • Very easy
  • Easy
  • Acceptable
  • Difficult

Q. 354

quality of a test to give same score at two times is called:

  • Validity
  • Reliability
  • Objectivity
  • Usability

Q. 355

Alfer binet’s major contribution was testing in the field Of:

  • Mental
  • Achievement
  • Diagnosis
  • None of above

Q. 356

The effective domain of learning deals with:

  • Intellectual abilities
  • Feelings
  • Motor skills
  • All of above

Q. 357

psychomotor domain of learning deals with:

  • Intellectual abilities
  • Feelings
  • Moto skills
  • All of the above

Q. 358

Mr. Qasim has decided to use manly multiple choice items on his final exam which of the following likely influenced this assessment decision?

  • He is most interested in measuring declarative knowledge
  • He is most interested in measuring procedural knowledge
  • He is most interested in measuring Meta cognitive knowledge
  • Insufficient information exist to answer this question

Q. 359

  • The score in a distribution which has maximum frequency is called:
    mean
  • Median
  • Mode
  • Range

Q. 360 The first five step in measurement is:

  • Deciding the style of item
  • Scoring procedure
  • Making table of specification
  • Define objectives
  • Of the test

Q. 361

Accuracy is measurement is called:

  • Validity
  • Reliability
  • Practicability
  • Al of above

Q. 362

Which type of measurement is called:

  • Validity
  • Reliability
  • Practicability
  • All of above

Q. 363

Which type of test ends to have lowest reliability?

  • True-False
  • Completion
  • Matching
  • Essay

Q. 364

Most of the tests used in our schools are:

  • Intelligence tests
  • Achievement tests
  • Aptitude tests
  • Personality tests

Q. 365

………involves professional judgment of the value or worth of measured performance:

  • Test
  • Evaluation
  • Assessmtn
  • Measurement

Q. 366

The term evaluation usually covers:

  • Students performance
  • Teacher performance
  • Instructions performance
  • All of above

Q. 367

Multiple cjhoice question provid a broas sampling:

  • Knowledge
  • Learning
  • Content
  • Comprehension

Q. 368

Norm reference test are designed to rank pupil:

  • Learning                
  • Effort
  • Achievement
  • Knowledge

Q. 369

Reliability is concerned with the …..of students:

  • Consistency
  • Stability
  • Dependability
  • All of above

Q. 370

Project may concern with:

  • Practical work
  • Theoretical work
  • Physical work
  • Mental work

Q. 371

………..is calculated by adding all the scores in distribution and then having that sum by the numbers of scores:

  • Mean
  • Medina
  • Mode
  • Standard deviation

Q. 372

The primary determinant of a grade is the…………of students:

  • Knowledge
  • Learning
  • Performance
  • Assessment

Q. 373

Referring Bloom taxonomy, knowledge analysis, synthesis indicate:

  • Cognitive domain
  • Effective domain
  • Psychomotor
  • Domain
  • All three domain

Q. 374

Generally if the difficulty index of an item is 5, then the item is supposed to be:

  • Very easy
  • Easy
  • Moderate
  • Difficult

Q. 375

The number which occurs most frequently in a set of data is:

  • Arithmetic mean
  • Median
  • Mode
  • quartile

Q. 376

If the result of test and retest are same, it is in fact:

  • Validity
  • Reliability
  • Objectivity
  • Usability

Q. 377

Into how many domains Bloom and others has classified the behavior of an individual?

  • One
  • Two
  • Three
  • Four

Q. 378

What does an ability test include?

  • Achievement, aptitude & attitude
  • Aptitude, attitude and interest
  • Attitude, interest & intelligence
  • Achievement, aptitude & intelligence

Q. 379

Where do we use simulation as a teaching technique?

  • Short answers                                
  • Completion items
  • Performance test
  • Matching exercises

Q. 380

What is the main purpose of classroom, testing?

  • Compare students performance
  • Measure teacher effectiveness
  • Reporting to parents
  • Improve instruction

Q. 381

Diagnostic evaluation is done?

  • Before teaching
  • After teaching
  • Between teaching
  • None of the above

Q. 382

What the individual can perform in future is measured by test:

  • Intelligence
  • Personality
  • Achievement
  • Aptitude

Q. 383

The best measure to avoid the guessing in a structured test is to use:

  • True / False items
  • Completion items
  • Matching items
  • Multiple choice items

Q. 384

The first and most important step in making a test is:

  • Collecting context
  • Defining objectives
  • Determine process
  • Proper planning

Q. 385

The final product of measurement is:

  • Test item
  • Scores
  • Interpretation
  • Performance

Q. 386

Easy test have advantage over objective test because they:

  • Are free form opportunities of bluffing
  • Have high consistency is making   
  • Provide adequate representation
  • Provide opportunities to organize knowledge

Q. 387

The function of educational measurement is to find out students:

  • Achievement
  • Attitude
  • Habits
  • Interest

Q. 388

If a criterion referenced that is reliable, then score from test are:

  • Useful
  • Standardized
  • Consistent
  • Valid

Q. 389

Construct validity established through:

  • Logical analysis
  • Standardized analysis
  • Both A&B         
  • Neither A or nor B

Q. 390

The standard error of measurement is a measure of:

  • Location
  • Central tendency
  • Variability
  • Association

Q. 391

Which is following is not strength of multiple choice items:

  • Effective testing of higher cognitive levels
  • Content sampling
  • Score reliability
  • Allows for educated guessing

Q. 392

When constructing multiple choice items, it is best to:

  • Make all option of same length
  • Put main ideas in items
  • Use only two options
  • Repeat key words of stem in options

Q. 393

Use of many selected responses in a test can provide good:

  • Level of difficulty
  • Objectivity 
  • Contest sampling
  • Time sampling

Q. 394

Variation in scores of an individual from time to time could be best judge by reliability techniques of:

  • Parallel test forms
  • Rational equivalence
  • Split half
  • Test-retest

Q. 395

The most significant advantage of true-false items is:

  • Wide sampling
  • Item validity
  • Ease of construction
  • Elimination of guessing

Q. 396

Improvement scores on a post test after having the pre test the threat affecting the result is referred as:

  • Instrumentation
  • History
  • Testing
  • Mortality

Q. 397

The most comprehensive term used in the process of educational testing is called:

  • Test
  • Interview
  • Evaluation
  • Measurement

Q. 398

Monitoring the outcomes with reference to the objectives the term used is called:

  • Test
  • Interview
  • Evaluation
  • Measurement

Q. 399

Learning difficulties during instruction can be checked with the help of evaluation type called:

  • Placement
  • Summative
  • Diagnostic
  • Formative

Q. 400

Test designed to measure the number of items an individual can attempt correctly in given time is referred type of test as:

  • Power
  • Supply
  • Achievement
  • Speed

Q. 401

Test designed to measure the learning during specific time of an individual is referred type of test as:

  • Power
  • Supply
  • Achievement
  • Speed

Q. 402

Which of the following about the use of standardized testing is true?

  • Standardized testing has tended to widen the curriculum by having clearer standards
  • Standardized testing has tended to produce wide spread cheating by schools
  • Standardized testing has appeared to produce some gains in achievement on state test but not the NEAP
  • Standardized test is embraced by teachers but not the larger public

Q. 403

In a multiple choice test number of alternative (N) is 4. What would be the score of candidate who has done 40 items correctly and 9 items wrongly?

  • 43
  • 31
  • 37
  • 49

Q. 404

Which one of the following is Spearman Brown prophecy formula.

  • R=2r/1+r
  • S=R-W
  • S-R-W/N-1
  • P=1-6 D2/N(-1)

Q. 405

What does an aptitude test measure of a students?

  • Overall mental ability
  • Attained ability
  • Present attainment
  • Potential ability

Q. 406

What is called the knowledge, skills, attitude and values to learned?

  • Objectives
  • Content
  • Syllabus
  • Course

Q. 407

The first step in constructing a test is to:

  • Select a variety of items from which to choose
  • Define the objectives of course
  • Delimit the content to be covered by the test
  • Decide what kind of test to use

Q. 408

Other things being equal, which type of test tends to have the lowest reliability:

  • True-false
  • Completion
  • Matching
  • Essay

Q. 409      

The chief point of distinction between teacher-made test and standardized tests lies in the area of:

  • Objectivity
  • Norms
  • Overall quality
  • Sampling

Q. 410

Seventy fifthe percentile may also be termed as:

  • Q1
  • Q2
  • Q3
  • Q4

Q. 411

The quality testing in education is only possible by using:

  • Achievement
  • Intelligence test
  • Aptitude test
  • Standardized Achievement test

Q. 412

chievement test batteries are widely used at:

  • Elementary school level
  • Secondary school level
  • Intermediate level
  • Degree level

Q. 413

Any scale which permits the qualification in fixed units of the intervals between the data is called:

  • Ordinal scale
  • Interval scale
  • Ratio scale
  • Nominal scale

Q. 414

The scale that is used for attitude measurement is named as:

  • Technical scale
  • Ordinal scale
  • Likret scal
  • Projective scale

Q. 415

  • Validity of test is related to:
  • Accuracy of the measurement
  • Student ability to get ore marks
  • What a test score mean
  • Achievement of instructional objectives

Q. 416 Variation the scores of an individual from time to time could best be judge by the reliability technique of:

  • Parallel test forms
  • Rational equivalence
  • Split half
  • Test-retest

Q. 417

The type of test used for obtaining dependable ranking of the students is:

  • Norm reference
  • Diagnostic
  • Prognostic
  • Criterion reference

Q. 418

Which of the following statements about assessment and evaluation is true?

  • Ten to 30 percent of a teacher/s time is spent on assessment and evaluation
  • Standardized tests are used to diagnose and evaluate student academic progress
  • Classroom teachers are responsible for developing and administering standardized tests
  • Formative evaluation plays a key role in determining student’s grades

Q. 419

Tests that show how well a student performed inrelation to other students are called:

  • Norm referenced
  • Criterion referenced
  • Functionally referenced
  • Teacher student referenced

Q. 420

A test is said to be valid when it:

  • Is fair and free from teacher bias
  • Measure what are claims to measure
  • Procedure consistent result over time
  • Has safeguard against cultural bias

Q. 421

A test is said to be reliable when it:

  • Is fair and free from teacher bias
  • Measure what are claims to measure
  • Procedure consistent result over time
  • Has safeguard against cultural bias

Q. 422

Which of the following statement is true about formative evaluation an contrasted to summative evaluation?

  • Formative evaluation places greater demands on issues of validity and reliability
  • Formative evaluation is used to inform teacher decision making
  • Formative evaluation is used to make final judgment about student achievement
  • All of the above statements are the true

Q. 423

Which of the following statements seams to an supported by search on the effects of grades on older students?

  • Students perform better under fail/pass system than they do under graded system
  • Students perform better under graded system than they do under pass/fail systems
  • Students performance is not affected by the graded system
  • We have no evidence on the effected of grades on student performance

Q. 424

Percentile rank can best be defined as:

  • The actual score received on a test
  • The percentage on a test
  • The proportion of students who received the same or lower raw score
  • The proportion of students who received passing scores      

Q. 425

Administration in a small school district want to find out how well their district is achieving standard set by a teacher administrator community committee a few years before. They decide to test students to find out what sort of test should be for their purpose.

  • Norm referenced
  • Criterion referenced
  • Functionality referenced
  • Teacher referenced

Q. 426

Which of the following is not the three major purpose for testing within individual classroom?

  • To diagnose students prior knowledge
  • To provide corrective feedback to students
  • To make judgment about students achievement
  • To make judgment about human intelligence

Q. 427

Which of the following is not one of Grounlund general principles for making tests?

  • Create test items to measure all instructional objectives
  • Use of a fairly large number of test items, to make the test more fair
  • Use the type of test item that is most reliable
  • Create test items to cover all cognitive domains

Q. 428

A test blue print is a device for helping teachers:

  • Specify important test objectives
  • Specify how much test space to devote to various topics
  • Specify criterion level for tests
  • Specify criterion levels for student’s grades

Q. 429

Which of the following is an advantage of selected response tems?

  • They are fairer to students
  • The allow greater coverage of topics
  • They eliminate to guessing
  • They are easier to make than other test items

Q. 430

Which of the following is an advantage of essay test items?

  • They can tap higher level thinking
  • They eliminate writing effects
  • They allow coverage of more topics
  • They are freer of grading bias

Q. 431

When assigning grades based on a master or criterion level, teachers should first:

  • Compute the class’s mean score on the test
  • Determine prior knowledge with necessary to constitute mastery
  • Decide the cutoff scores for each letter grade
  • Define the content and skill necessary to constitute mastery

Q. 432 Which of the following kinds of dilemmas must be resolved by teachers opting for grading on a curve?

  • Should the more able students be required to perform more work than the less able?
  • Should a descriptive report card be sent home?
  • Should all students receive a passing grade?
  • Should some percentage to a class for gifted students receive failing marks?

Q. 433

Which of the following is not a way to reduce teacher bias in grading essay question? The teacher could…..….

  • Write a sample answer ahead of time
  • Read answer blind of student’s names
  • Write questions that have definite answer
  • Make expectations clear to students

Q. 434

Mr. Ali has prepared a test for his twelfth grade history class. The test has twenty true false items and twenty items asking students to recall information from the text. He spent the class period prior to the test day on review, explaining to students the material they were responsible for. He also reiterated his grading policy, and how this test would be used in conjunction with his other weekly tests in determining their grades. What testing guidelines has Mr. Ali violated?

  • Test all levels of Loom’s taxonomy
  • Inform students about what they will be tested on
  • Test frequently
  • Inform students about grading procedures

Q. 435

students in Mr. Ramzan biology class are to write a mock letter to the newspaper arguing that more resources should be spent on cleaning up toxic waste. Mr. Ramzan will assess both their ideas and their writing. What is this an example of?

  • Essay assessment
  • Authentic assessment
  • Portfolio assessment  
  • Open response assessment

Q. 436

Students in a fifth classroom are asked to collect various artifacts opf their work and put the work in a notebook to demonstrate what they can do for their teacher and their parents. What is this an example of?

  • Essay assessment
  • Authentic assessment
  • Portfolio assessment
  • Open response assessment

Q. 437

The process of evaluating a program’s effectiveness or the worth of student performance after instruction is known as:

  • Assessment evaluation
  • Evaluation
  • Formative evaluation
  • Summative evaluation

Q. 438

The term used to refer to the full range of information gathered and synthesized by teachers about their students and classroom is called:

  • Assessment
  • Evaluation      
  • Formative evaluation
  • Summative evaluation

Q. 439

The Pakistan High School Math Department wanted to consolidate the final exam used by four department algebra teachers. One of the primary objectives was to ensure that students would be uniformly tested on their knowledge of facts and concepts that appear on a national college exam test that many of the students take. A comprehensive test was constructed with the participation of all four teachers and the department chairperson. To evaluate the quality of test, students took the test twice, once on Monday and again two weeks later. After students finished taking the test the second time, results were compared, and it as found that 95 percent of the students had scores on both tests that were very similar, it could be said that this test:

  • Is valid
  • Has retest reliability
  • Has split half reliability
  • Is not valid

Q. 440        

One of the disadvantage of selected response test is:

  • They are too easily scored
  • They provided limited coverage
  • They are too objectives          
  • They are focused on low level thinking skills

Q. 441

Which of the following statements best describe the findings of studies done on the effect of assigning grades as an incentive for performing work?

  • Grades are not usually a strong incentive for performing work
  • Grades used as negative incentives would be more powerful than grades used as positive incentives
  • Grades used positive incentives have been shown to be an overwhelming motivational factor for performing work
  • Studies have been inconclusive with respect to the impact of grades as motivational reinforces

Q. 442

In general, criterion referenced tests are most appropriate for which of the following purpose?

  • Comparing student achievement in one school with those nationally
  • Helping to determine what students should do after high school     
  • Helping teachers to know whether their particular objectives have been met
  • Showing students achievement gains over time
  • Both C & D

Q. 443

A selected response question requires the student to:

  • Construct the correct answer
  • Construct the correct answer from several possibilities
  • Recognize the correct answer
  • Explain the correct answer

Q. 444

Which of the following is an example of constructed response test item?

  • Rubic scored questions
  • Essay questions
  • Multiple choice questions
  • Matching questions

Q. 445

A test products similar results when it is given to the same students on two different occasions is said to have:

  • Internal validity
  • Test retest reliability
  • Internal reliability
  • All of the above

Q. 446

Ms. Maryam wants to supplement her paper and pencil test with alternative assessments that require students to demonstrate their growth in a number of areas. Which of the following would she likely use?

  • Performance assessment        
  • Selected response assessment
  • Essay exam
  • Closed response exam

Q. 447

Which of the following is not an appropriate guidance for test?

  • Using multiple measure
  • Testing at all level
  • Testing infrequently
  • Communicating to students what they will be tested on

Q. 448

Which of the following is not a role for teacher in regard to standardized testing?

  • Help parents understand standardized testing
  • Go over test formats with students
  • Communicates results to parents
  • Give students a few of the actual test items

Filed Under: Education

Importance of Advertising Agencies

Last Updated on February 26, 2020 By Lisa C. Townes 2 Comments

Advertising Agency is a specialized type of institution which conducts the function of advertising of the products in the market. The development of advertisement has been associated with the growth of such agencies. It is a service organization composed of one person or group of persons who are experienced and skilled in this field.

The advertising agency usually has various departments i.e., marketing research department, layout, sales, art, copy and mechanical departments, some large companies have their own advertising departments and the services of an outside agency may also be hired.

Importance of Advertising Agencies

Advertising agency renders professional services to business community. It may measure the pulling power of its client’s advertising. It can also provide marketing research facilities on practically any stage of selling. So largest companies hire the services of reputable advertising agencies.

Independent Institution

Advertising agency is an independent institution which can take important and immediate decision for the achievement of its outside objectives.

Wide Experience

Advertising agency has wide experience of advertising channels with various types of products in the different markets. Agency has some specialists who know how to use the various channels of distribution and can determine the suitable media of advertisement.

Valuable Service

The great source of revenue of advertising agency is media commission which cannot be available to advertiser if he contacts direct with the media for publication space or broadcast time. So advertiser cannot cost the large part of the services of advertising agency.

Satisfactory Function

Agency must perform a satisfactory job with the object of receiving remuneration. It has to remain alert to opportunities because its client may change, agency at any time in case of default.

Economical sources

It is most economical to engage the services of advertising instead of maintain separate advertising department. Because the agency may spread the expenditure of certain services over a number of accounts.

Filed Under: Marketing & Advertising

Investment Banks in London

Last Updated on March 1, 2022 By Lisa C. Townes Leave a Comment

An investment bank is a special section of banking and financial institution that works mainly in high finance by helping corporations to access the capital markets to increase money. It provides financial consultancy services to them.

Investment banks work as mediators between investors and security issuers and help new companies to go public. They either buy all the accessible shares at an estimated price by their specialists and resell their shares to public on behalf of the issuer and get commission on each share.

Difference b/w Investment Bank and Investment Banking

Sometimes, there can be confusion between an investment bank and the investment banking division. As for as fare is concerned, they offer a broad range of services including M&A, asset management, sales and trading, underwriting, equity research, retail banking, and commercial banking. While the investment banking section of a bank offers M&A advisory and under-watering services only.

Investment Banks in London (UK)

London has long been and still remains the financial capital city of the world. For many Europeans and other investors outside the US, London always seems to be an attractive destination to acquire Investment Banking.

For Americans and from the Asia Pacific too, London is also striking given the calmer lifestyle it offers, and chances to work on deals across European countries.

An Overview of Investment Banks In London (UK)

London has always become dependent on trade and immigration. After the 9/11, the USA wanted visas for everything, employment visits to business trips; visas in the UK for employment opportunities and business were still simply available.

This resulted in immigration of many immigrants from Spain, France, Italy, and Germany into Great Britain and made it the greatest financial market in the world. During that time, various investment banks had emerged in USA and U.K had still been upholding authority in financial markets.

Above all, circumstances have had a great effect on the world’s financial market. London has measured the best environment for doing business and creating value for people.

As a result, now Investment banks in London are the best place to invest and work.

Since investment banking is a vast part of the financial institutes and business deals, it’s fairly clear that London is one of the top places to be an investment banker.

Investment Banking Services in London

Investment Funds

This is amongst the best services offered by Investment Banking in London. Each member of the team is an expert of some sort in sales, corporate finance, and market research. Their responsibility is to provide customized services on different investment funds to their high net-worth and a great client.

Research

It is one of the basic things any investment bank needs to add value to their customers. The investment bankers in London offer a “Research” service to their clients to validate their recommendations about the financial market.

Broking and Corporate Advisory

As you know relationships with the clients and the frequency of recommendations matter a lot in investment. These two things have got maximum importance.

On the basis of these two essentials, investment banks’ broking team and corporate advisory are built. The corporate broking team regularly gives updates to customers about the present market activity plus they also deliver capital market views, regular market intelligence reports, and investors relations services.

IPOs

Any company, whether it is small or big, when they decide to go public, banks support them to take the action with minimum hassle as possible. Investment Bankers help them in enhancing the firm profile, releasing more funds for product development, and helping them cultivate their companies.

Mergers & Acquisitions (M&A)

Market leverage is an important thing in investment banking in London. They provide nonstop monitoring of the market, provide leverage to the clients, offer tailored solutions to them as per their requirements and needs.

Institutional Equities

Almost all bankers give services to long-only funds, hedge funds, investment boutiques, family businesses, retail brokers, and also wealth managers. There are mainly two parts in institutional equities, they help clients build a stronger reputation in-market sales and share trading.

Best Investment Banks in London

According to a survey in the United Kingdom, these are at the top of the list.

JP. Morgan

J.P. Morgan is top of the list. It has headquarters in London and other offices in Glasgow, Bournemouth, and Edinburgh. J.P. Morgan is considered one of the biggest technology employers in Scotland.

Goldman Sachs International

Goldman Sachs International in the UK is at the second spot in the list of London Investment Banks. It has many offices in London.

Barclays

It is not actually an investment bank, but it offers services in insurance and financial services.

Morgan Stanley

Morgan Stanley in the UK is at the 4th spot in the London investment bank list. In 1977, its headquarters started in London. It has above 8000 employees in all of its offices in London.

Deutsche Bank

Deutsche Bank takes the 5th spot in the ranking. Its branch office offers underwriting services and investment banking.

Bank of America, Merrill Lynch

Bank of America, Merrill Lynch takes the 6th position. It has the resources, capabilities, and strengths to shape a wonderful future for its investors and employees as well.

BlackRock

BlackRock, one of the biggest in Britain, has the 7th position in the market. It had US$4.59 trillion assets under management as of June 30, 2014.

Credit Suisse

Credit Suisse is on the 8th. In 2008, there are more than 3000 employees full-time in the investment banking team and they were supposed to grow their investment banking ability by 60%.

Citibank

Citibank was at 9th in 2016. Citibank has headquarters in Canary Wharf, London.

UBS

UBS positioned tenth according to a survey. Their head office is in London. They have 31.7 billion pounds assets under management (AUM) in December 2015.

Investment Banking Culture (London)

Let’s have a birds eye view of some investment banks in London and their organizational culture.

J P Morgan

This bank functions in the most European method possible. The worst part of it is pay. As it pays very low and below the market. The best part is the internships. The juniors get the opportunity to train well there.

Goldman Sachs

In Goldman Sachs doing the job is really hectic. You have to works for long hours as it is the culture. The best thing is the pay and incentives if you make it to the highest positions.

Morgan Stanley

The employees in Morgan Stanley are not very contented as the old days were better than the present.

Deutsche Bank

It has a bad reputation of being overly political. This bank is bad for putting people in relative roles which only rises hostility. The best part is, is the pay structure.

Credit Suisse

It is one of the great places to work in. Credit Suisse gives the highest pay, and their dealings and behavior make it incredible and happiest places to work in.

Final Words: London is one of the best financial markets for investment bankers. If you want to go into investment, London can be your best choice. Though there are problems within the investment banking cultures in London, they are not so big; are they?

Filed Under: Banking & Finance

Advantages of Advertising

Last Updated on August 28, 2020 By Lisa C. Townes Leave a Comment

Advertising is not bad; it is good in multiple perspectives, from the Company view, from the Media view & from Society view. Advertising is actually an introduction through different types of Advertising Media. Advertising is a costly tool used to increase sales which results in a more profitable company.

Why Advertising ??

There are lots of toothpaste brands. Some big companies own more than 1 brand of the same product with little variation. If brand A sale is decreasing company starts Advertising & If brand B sale is down they do the same with brand B, C or others.

The basic Purpose of Advertising is to influence consumers to buy your product. They can even reduce and increase their time-based sales within the brands they have. All these Advertising activities circulate money in the market, which is a positive effect in Economy. Although, Advantages and Disadvantages of Advertising go side by side.

Advantages of Advertising in Company Perspectives

Change the Market

Most of the times Advertising change market trends, buying behaviors, brand priorities, likes and dislikes are altered. Soccer is most famous sport in Europe and Cricket in Asia. I don’t remember I saw any TV ad supporting Hockey, Football, Swimming or Cycling, but in World Cup seasons, or other matches, people change their routine to watch a cricket match.

It builds your interest if you keep watching & hearing same thing again and again. You start liking it. You get emotionally attached. Advertising is used to play with customer’s psychology, they divert you, they set up your mind.

Example

I was using a Samsung smartphone for my personal use. A local mobile producer Q-mobile is always on TVs, Internet, Cinema, Billboards & also painted vehicle. Once I thought to buy mobile when I was about to change my phone but switched to Huawei-Mate smartphone.

Why did I think to buy Samsung? Even I know Iphone’s camera is better than Samsung’s. All your selling approaches, tricks & salesman qualities may fail without taking help from advertising.

Consumer Perception

Consumers build perception about the brand; company image is constructed through an advertising channel. Generally, people perceive the advertised brand better than non-advertised. Advertising has many benefits that are why brands make huge investments in Advertising.

Eliminating Middleman

We cannot neglect that once company advertise their product, consumer actually get road to direct producers. Direct orders to producers reduces product price because of no commission or incentives paid to whole sellers & retailers.

Competitive Price

Advertising Encourages competition, better production facilities with the latest modern technologies are used to beat competitors, products are also sold at competitive pricing. The more competition in the market, the more chances of buying good quality products at low rates, some of the core Advantages of Advertising.

Time Saver

Advertising is time saving, we easily get to know which product meets our specific need. It also helps in developing new products. Manufacturing concerns observes market behaviors and tries for more innovation in existing product. Advertising improves our social life & social standards.

Example

In 2005, I remember we had Nokia phones 3310, 1112, 1100 or similar models. You can only call, send sms up to 500 characters, two three games which I remember snake master. Today we play interactive games at phone, watch movies or talk to world.

Why we are using Android, Windows, Black berry & Apple phone in 2019? Who changed our needs? Who made us realize which phone meets our requirement? Even we were satisfied with those phones at that time.

Why you wear soft night suit at bed and jeans with friends? Who told you all these social or personal norms? Why you don’t wear tie with trouser or Joggers with coat? Advertising played an important role.

You watch a sportsman in commercial wearing sports watch, so you wear sports watch while you play. You at road hoarding saw a lady using umbrella in sun, I don’t think now you never saw ladies on road with umbrella. These are advertising effects.

Advertising Advantage in Society & Consumers

Increase in Employment

It provides employment to unemployed people. Too much of employment opportunities are created, many new business are designed & developed. Did you ever think you shall receive short message providing you product information?

Or you thought young boys and girls standing at road with free product samples in hand? Or ever you imagined a big board on road displaying product?

Go back in past, about 10-15 years or 30 years. You can ask your elders; did they ever think they would be able to actually watch their family member in some other country?

Even if I try I cannot sum how many businesses are designed. A man making small boards, a woman acting as model, a baby wearing pamper in Ad and earning, designers are working day and nights to make attractive bill board, bill boards are made of iron and recycling units are forging iron, some are joining them, some are installing electric bulbs, some are selling electric bulbs, models in ads wearing good brands, textile designers working for brands, workers are making those designed clothes and so on.

Sale is not easy job even if you have so many salesman qualities you still need advertising to help you in sales. Advertising starts engine & you gear it. Good advertising campaign educates you time to time.

Filed Under: Marketing & Advertising

Cooperative Societies

Last Updated on November 16, 2021 By Lisa C. Townes Leave a Comment

The Formation of Cooperative Society is a simple matter and there is no complicated procedure for its registration. The formation of the cooperative society is governed by the provision of the cooperative society Act 1925 in our country. It can be formed with limited or unlimited liability.

To get a cooperative society registered, an application on the prescribed form must be submitted to the Registrar of the cooperative societies in which the society’s office is t be located.

8 Pre-Registration Conditions for Formation of Cooperative Society

  1. There must be at least 10 members above the age of 18 years. But there is no restriction on the maximum number of members.
  2. The member must be resident of the same town or village or in the same group of villages.
  3. There must be an in name of the society.
  4. Every society with limited liability must have the word “limited” after the name of society.
  5. The application must be signed by the promoters/secretary/officers. Moreover, such an application must be accompanied by the following documents:
    1. Memorandum of the Society.
    2. Articles of the Society.
    3. Two copies of the by-laws (internal working rules) proposed to be adopted by society.

After proper verification of the application according to law, the Registrar will give his approval to the formation of the society and will record the name of the society in the register. Generally, Registrar issues a certificate of registration which is conclusive evidence that the society is duly registered.

After its registration, the cooperative society can invite new members and can conduct the particular business for which it has been organized and registered.

18 Features of Cooperative Societies

Elimination of Middlemen

The management of the consumer cooperative society directly purchases the finished goods from the manufacturer and producer. Producer Cooperative society procures the raw material from the producer. Thus they try to free themselves from the grip of the middlemen and make the goods available to consumers at lower prices.

Saving in Management Expenses 

A cooperative society enjoys some economics in the field of management due to voluntary services performed by the members themselves. Thus, it is possible to minimize the expenses of management and supervision.

Minimum Stock 

Society Purchases the same goods which are actually demanded by its members. Thus there is a need to have minimum stock at hand due to constant and regular demands.

Economy in Distribution and Production Expenditure 

Society is saved from any distribution and production expenses. It has got its regular customers, therefore society has not to face any trouble for marketing its goods. Thus it has not to incur any expenditure for publicity and advertisement, which is a big item in the budget of the capitalist producer.

Integration 

Under this type of organization, complete integration between producers, wholesalers, and retailers is always possible. This is thus a clear advantage over a capitalist economy.

Employment Opportunities 

Thousands of people are engaged in different types of cooperative small scale and cottage industries. Most of them are not familiar with writing a perfect job application, Thus it removes the problem of jobless persons in developing countries.

Equal Distribution of Wealth 

With the growth of the cooperative society, wealth has not been concentrated into a few hands. Thus this factor tends to equalize the distribution of wealth in society.

Educative and Social Value 

Spirit of sacrifice, sense of mutual help, and self-help are developed among the members. They are able to adopt the principles of honesty and unity. It thus creates the economic and social aspects of human life among the members.

Financial Services 

It renders financial services for its members for the purchase of seeds, manures, implements, and houses, etc. It thus removes the financial problems of the member of the society.

Taxes Facilities 

The government provides certain concessions to this class of organization i.e. exemption from stamp duty, super tax, income tax, and business registration fees.

Improvement of Standard of Living 

Its main aim is to bring about greater benefit for its members. It supplied daily necessities of life to its members at the lowest prices. Thus it is helpful for the improvement and progress of standard of living.

Equal Status 

It is a democratic organization where members enjoy an equal voice in the management of the cooperative business.

Extensive Market 

As the goods are supplied to its members at cheaper rates, the general public is attracted to become the shareholders of the society.

Rural Development 

Cooperative organization renders public utility services such as village communications, sanitation, water supply, drainage, education and undertakes the supply of various implements to the farmers.

Encouragement of habit of Saving 

A cooperative society supplies the goods to its members at cheaper prices. It thus creates the attraction in the general public for becoming shareholders of the society. This tendency encourages the habit of saving and investment.

Miscellaneous Advantages 

  • It helps to eliminate the evils of capitalism from the society. 
  • It increases the business and economic activities in the country. 
  • It promotes the welfare of the community.

Seven Types of Cooperative Societies

1. Producer Cooperative Societies

These are formed to eliminate the middlemen and capitalist groups from industrial production. Its main purpose is to produce goods for the requirements of its members. Surplus productions are also supplied to outriders in the open market at profit.

All the necessary activities as production, management, and marketing are performed by the members themselves. Its members get dividends on the basis of the capital invested by them.

Objectives of Producer Cooperative Society

  • To purchase the raw materials and other factors at most economical prices.
  • To produce the goods at the most economical level. 
  • To supervise the production most efficiently and effectively. 
  • To dispose of the surplus production to non members at maximum prices.
  • To eliminate the middlemen and capitalists. 
  • To remove the worker’s grievances in respect of working conditions, wages etc. 
  • To arrange for the democratic control of the industrial unit.

2. Consumer Cooperative Societies

Society is the voluntary association of ordinary people formed with the object of obtaining the daily requirements of the members. It directly purchases the goods at a large scale from the producer or wholesalers at wholesale price.

It thus eliminates capitalists, retailers, and other middlemen from the channel of distribution and members are in a position to make their purchase at a cheaper rate.

Anyone can become a member by purchasing one share of the society.

Sometimes goods are also supplied to non-members but they do not share in the profit of the society. Profit earned by the store is distributed among the members according to the value of the purchases conducted by the manager who is elected by the members. Generally, its two types are popular in the world.

  • Retail cooperative store
  • Wholesale cooperative store

Objectives of Consumer Cooperative Society

  • To eliminate the retailers, capitalists and wholesalers.
  • To promote the welfare of the members. 
  • To supply the daily necessities of life to its members at market price. 
  • To increase the purchasing power an standard of living of the members of the society. 

3. Marketing Cooperative Society

It is the voluntary association of producers formed for the object of arranging the disposal of their output. It pools together the output of the individual members and arranges to supply the product at the highest possible price.

The profit of the sale of the ~ products is distributed among the contributing producers according to their individual contribution to the pool. This kind of society is particularly useful for small producers and agriculturists. It can be formed in two organizations according to the local condition of the country i.e.,

  • Single purpose society
  • Multi purposes society

Objectives of Marketing Cooperative Society

  • To eliminate the middlemen who are liable of the high cost of marketing.
  • To pool together the output of the individual members. 
  • To grade and process of the pooling products of the members.
  • To dispose of the product at the maximum price.
  • To adjust supply to demand. 
  • To provide storage facilities to its members. 
  • To procure the information relating to market for the member’s product.
  • To provide the financial facilities to its members

4. Insurance Cooperative Society

This type of cooperative society is formed for the objects of providing group insurance facilities to its members. It makes the contract with the sound insurance company on collective terms and conditions and thus pays a lower premium rate to the insurance company as compared with ordinary policyholders.

2 Forms of cooperative Insurance

Mutual Office

In the Mutual office, the policyholders are the owners and the profit of the insurance company is utilized in the following ways:

  • To strengthen the financial position of the company.
  • To decrease true amount of premium.
  • To distribute bonus to its members.

Self concern

A cooperative society is organized to provide insurance facilities like the private insurance company and issued policies to its members for a reasonable amount.

Objectives of Insurance Cooperative Society

  • To provide insurance facilities to its members.
  • To charge the low rate of premium. 
  • To promote the welfare of the members. 
  • To encourage the habit of thrift and investment.
  • Housing Cooperative society

It is an association of middle and low-income groups of people. Generally, it is formed in urban areas. The main purpose of this form of society is to protect its members against exploitation by landlords. It not only grants financial assistance to its members but also achieves the economics of the purchase of building material in bulk.

In order to become a member of society, one must buy at least one share of the society. The liability of the member is limited to his capital contributed. It is also called “Building Society” and may be divided into three types i.e.

  • Housing Building Society
  • Land Society
  • Finance Society

Objectives of Building Society

  • To receive deposits from its members. 
  • To make loans to its members for the construction of house at low rate of interest. 
  • To render technical services for its members. 
  • To purchase building materials at economical rate. 
  • To perform the welfare activities as water supply, roads, sewerage, electricity etc.
  • Cooperative Farming Society

This form of Society is formed with the object of obtaining the benefits of large-scale farming and maximizing agricultural products. It is basically an agricultural cooperative that is confined to agricultural countries. Its members generally relate to the former including those owning land.

The Cooperative Forming are of the following types

  • Cooperative collective farming Society.
  • Cooperative joint farming society. 
  • Cooperative better farming society.
  • Cooperative tenant farming society.

Objectives of Cooperative Forming

  • To consolidate holding.
  • To introduce new technique of cultivation.
  • To improve the irrigating system.
  • To increase the area under agricultural operations.
  • To make necessary steps for the improvements of the standard of living of the farmers. 
  • To increase the production per acre. 
  • To provide seeds manures and implements to its members.
  • To dispose of agricultural output.

7. Credit Cooperative Society

Credit cooperative society is the voluntary association of the financially weak persons organized with the object of providing short-term financial requirements to them.

This society performs an important role in the rural areas where the dishonest money lenders have been exploiting simple villagers by charging a high rate of interest.

The Funds of the Society Consist of 

  • Membership fees
  • Dispose of shares
  • Deposits from members and non-members
  • Loan from govt. and semi govt.

The liability of members is unlimited. This assists society in raising funds and ensures that every member will take a keen interest in the activities of the society.

Society prefers the poorer members in granting loans and charges a low rate of interest from them. Generally, society advances the amount for productive purposes but some loans are also given to members for unproductive purposes. Credit cooperative society may be divided into two types:

  • Agricultural Credit Society
  • Non-agricultural credit Society

Objectives of Credit Society

  • To get rid of the pressure of money lenders. 
  • To provide the financial facilities for short term to its members.
  • To keep the minimum rate of interest on loan.
  • To develop the habit of thrift and saving among the members.
  • To encourage the habit of mutual aid.

Filed Under: Commerce

Successful Small Business Ideas 2022

Last Updated on January 24, 2022 By Jason Obrien 3 Comments

So, you are planning to start up a business. It is a great idea. But you maybe not sure how to start a small business at home? There was a time if you wanted to start your own business, you had to grovel to your bank manager, have something extraordinary to sell, and then try to persuade real people to buy it, and then you had a market value in the world of business.

But that was before the internet era when there was no email, no social media, and no CRM software. Now a day, modern technology turned the whole world into a global village. All you need is to have good business communication skills.

Social media and marketing automation now dominate our lives. Today, for home-based, cheap and successful small business in UK; a decent business idea with internet connection and devotion to work is enough.

United Kingdom, UK, is one of the major economies of the world. It drives economy of many other countries as well. Real estate, manufacturing industry, and service industry are the contributor to GDP of the country.

small business ideas

After Brexit and other global economic events, the country is growing again and its change in GDP 2.3% is really a good indicator. So, this is the time for entrepreneurs to go through the most promising business ideas from home which are forecasted to make money in this market.

Homongous Successful Business Ideas in UK

For better understanding, we will categorize these businesses into different categories to answer your question what is the best business to start from home? If you are a female and want to have a startup, we have listed business ideas for women with low investments here.

IT business ideas; online business ideas

1. Bookkeeping Services

If you are good with numbers and take an interest in accounting. Then check out some free to use accountancy packages to offer bookkeeping services. Accounting is important to businesses, there is huge potential to provide these services at competitive pricing. You can use cloud-based wave accounting or open-source Gnu Cash.

2. Virtual Assistant

Perhaps the most lucrative assignment you can choose today. You can get your clients through sites such as Upwork, Fiverr. Choose clients, rates, and the working hours that work for you.

3. Social Media Consultant

The new marketing place is social media. Facebook and Instagram help you to grow beyond boundaries. You can get complete professional courses with recognized certification through Twitter, Google, and Youtube.

4. Affiliate Marketing Work business ideas

Do you want to earn money for doing absolutely nothing? Yes, it is possible by promoting somebody else’s product and services. For this work, you need a blog or website with good visitor statistics. And that is the tricky part.

5. Review Products Professionally

For this, make a profile on freelancing websites and offer your services as an “influencer” by leaving a review in exchange of money. The alternate way is to build your own website or blog and review products there.

6. Remote Secretarial Services

If you have excellent communication skills and you are well- organized then you can offer your services as remote secretarial services. This requires you to book a meeting, organize calendars, reply to emails, compose presentations, and answer phone calls.

7. Ebay Affiliate Business Ideas

In this commissioned base home business, you will need to work hard to sell other people’s stuff on eBay and take your commission.

8. App Developer

This is the internet business era. In the world of internet, new apps come out every day. This is the market of the future. For this, what you need to do is;

  • Create your app
  • Come up with a decent marketing orientation

This business won’t need to invest much money to get started but yes; it requires your time and effort.

This requires a little bit technical knowledge.

9. Be a Business Plan Designer

There are plenty of people who have resources and ideas but they do not have clue how to present their concepts to appeal potential investors. This is a good option for you if you have an MBA-type qualification or you have owned your own business.

10. Freelance Copywriter

Every organization needs some employees to write for them. Now the internet makes it easy for employers to hire someone hourly beside on regular salary package. So, this need opened up millions of opportunities and you could be the one to provide them.

Get started with a website and create an online portfolio. If you do not have a portfolio then create one by working for free then showcase your work.

11. Blogger and Vlogger

If you have any passion or interest like sports, crochet, app development, fitness, or beauty. You do not need to write or talk about it. You can make videos and promote your site on social media and other types of advertising.

You can make cash by selling your items, advertising space on your blog and vlog, and reviewing products.

12. CV writer

Everybody wants a new job and for this they need a professionally written CV. If you can comprehend what employers are looking for, and then you can write CV accordingly then you can earn money.

Get started with a website or register yourself on freelancing sites like Fiverr, upwork, freelancer etc and promote yourself also on social media like Facebook, youtube, and Instagram.

13. Photograph Selling

If you are a professional photographer or have an interest in photography then you can make money by selling your pictures on photo-selling websites. Gettyimages.com and flicker.com are the sites where you can establish yourself.

14. E-commerce Business Idea

You want to sell your products but you cannot afford an actual shop. Set yourself up online and sell all over the planet, read more about cloth selling here.

15. Travel Planner

If you are well organized then this is good for you. Many people have ample money and love to travel. But due to shortage of time they cannot make arrangements of traveling like flight booking, hotel, and car rentals.

With an eye for a bargain, you could make a living as a travel planner to people who are cash-rich and time-poor.

16. ebook Writer

If, you are knowledgeable on a particular subject and you can write a short book about it. Then write it and publish it on the Kindle store.

You can sell your book online here or on Amazon and other sites.

17. Online Clothing Store Business Ideas

The online clothing store is an $80 billion-a-year business. However, starting a successful online clothing store is not just buying a domain and placing an advertisement.

Step one chooses a niche for your site that has earning potential.

Step two is; you have to decide about the products you are going to sell. Because the clothing market is almost infinite so be specific. You can try Ladies, Kids or Gents clothing and start with either winter or summer collection suits.

Step three is to focus on your end goal. This will enable you to implement new trends.

Step four: Outline your business plan for further implementations. Outline your market, your potential shoppers, your products, and list of your competitors.

Step five: And the most important step is to bring traffic to your newly launched online clothing store. Social media marketing is effective and biggest traffic drivers.

Food Related Small business Ideas

Life is becoming very fast and new trends highlight the increased demand for street food, fast food, and plant proteins.

18. Street Food Business Idea

Food trucks selling Indian food with zingy vegetables and drizzled in chutney or Italian Pizza and Pasta could become a common sight. Fasten your seat belt and set up your own street food van.

19. Health Food

People are concerned about their health and they are exploring alternatives to staple foods. This is the time to start a health food business that stands out.

Cleaning Related Small Business Ideas

In UK, half a million people working in the cleaning industry and its worth is around £5.6 billion. It is a competitive industry but think about areas you are interested in and can start a business around it.

20. Windows Cleaning

If you have interests in it then go for it. New equipment for window cleaning made this work easier and now you can work from the ground.

21. Carpet and Sofa Cleaning

Carpet and Sofas always need cleaning. People may turn to a carpet cleaner to get their sofa and carpet look tip top.

22. Car Washing

People love their cars but do not have time to keep them in tip top condition. A mobile car wash business could capitalize on this.

Home Based Creative small Business Ideas

23. Furniture refinishing business ideas

People who love art and a little bit of old school in their lives. They want to refinish their vintage furniture with a touch of modern design. Pick up old furniture and do it up and then sell it.

24. Baking Retailers

You can bake cake according to the desire of the people and sell your awesome creations.

25. Event or Party Planner business ideas

If you are well organized and can keep minor things in the record then you can become a successful event planner. 

Obviously some of these home-based small business ideas have more earning potential than others. These works may help you to earn part-time or on weekends. Explore your talent and interest and then plan what kind of business suits you and help you to grow in this technical era.

Filed Under: Business

Personnel Management [ Functions, Importance, Objectives & Definitions ]

Last Updated on October 8, 2021 By Lisa C. Townes Leave a Comment

Personnel Management focuses on the administrative tasks of the organization along with the employee’s welfare and labour relations management. It is often considered as a sub-category of Human Resource Management. Few consider it to be the same as HRM but it is different from it.

Personnel Management Definition by Different Authors

Edwin Flippo

Personnel Management is concerned with procurement, development, compensation, integration and maintenance of personnel of organization for the purpose of contributing towards the accomplishments of the organizational objectives.

Paul Pigore & Charles Myres

Personnel Management is the line responsibility & staff functions, assisting managers in providing advice, counsel, service and various types of controls to secure uniform administrations of personnel policies designed to achieve an organization’s objective.

Prof. Michael Jueins

Personnel Management is that field of management which has to do with planning, organizing and controlling various operative functions of procuring, developing, maintaining and utilizing a labour force in such a way that:

  • Objectives of the company are attained economically and effectively.
  • Objectives of all levels of personnel are served to the highest possible degree.
  • Objectives of the community are duly considered and served Anything HR Solutions

Martinez et. al, 1993:215

The efficient use of the material resources of any organization depends on how well it is utilized by its Personnel or Manpower.

Sison,1991:30

Personnel Management is concerned with promoting and enhancing the development of work effectiveness and advancement of the human resources in the organization through proper planning, organizing, directing, coordinating, and controlling of activities related to procurement, development, motivation, and compensation of employees to achieve the goals of the enterprise.

H.N. North Scott

Personnel management is an extension of general management that of promoting and stimulating every employee to make the fullest contribution to the purpose of the business.

Terry R George

Personnel management is concerned with the obtaining and maintaining of a satisfactory and satisfied workforce.

Spates,194 4:9

Code of the ways of organization and treating individual at work so that they will each get the greatest possible realization of their intrinsic abilities, thus attaining maximum efficiency for themselves and their group, and thereby giving to the enterprise of which they are a part its determining competitive advantage and its optimum result.

Webster, 1687

The phase of management concerned with the engagement and effective utilization of manpower to obtain optimum efficiency of human resources management functions.

Paul G. Hastings

Personnel Management is that aspect of management having as its goal the effective utilization of the labour resources of an organization.

Personnel Management

Functions and Objectives of Personnel Management

  • Conduct job analysis
  • Recruitment and Selection of employees
  • Performance appraisal systems of employees
  • Handling employee relations at the workplace
  • Employee Retention
  • To align the individual’s goals with the organization’s goals and objectives
  • To assure organizational compliance with governmental laws
  • Provision of the proper work environment and to ensure job satisfaction
  • To analyze Job security, avenues for promotion and internal and external compensation
  • To achieve a social objective like creating more employment opportunities, producing goods at the cheap rates and allocation of resources in useful ways
  • The orientation of new employees in an organization
  • To motivate the employees to do best on jobs
  • To communicate with all employees effectively
  • Role of Personnel Management is to play a role as Mediator between employees and management
  • To assist the top management in developing the strategic goals and objectives

Importance of Personnel Management

Employees are considered as an important asset of an organization, so the organization tries its best to retain them. In this modern era, many companies hire personnel managers as an essential part of their organization. Personnel management deals with transactional and administrative aspects of HR management. To understand the importance of Personnel Management considers the following:

Motivation

Personnel managers motivate employees to their job. They tried to motivate those employees who are not doing their job in a way as it should be doing. They carefully listen to their problems and solve their queries and issues. On the other hand, personnel managers motivate employees by offering them incentives, bonuses, perks, promotions, etc.

Competitive

Personnel managers train employees to stay up-to-date on their jobs because things are changing rapidly in this fast-paced era. So with the changing external environment organizations have to adopt a change to survive in the industry.

Hence, personnel managers conduct training sessions and seminars to train and to develop their employees. So that they can easily perform their jobs.

Competent Workforce

Personnel manager develops a competent workforce who can work with full devotion to achieve the mission and vision of the organization. He evaluates the performance of employees and finds out the best workers to create a competent workforce. The competent workforce also plays an important role to gain competitive advantage.

Managing People

Personnel managers manage not only the organized and disorganized workers in the organization, but individually manage the people in the organization. It manages all of the persons and departments like clerical staff, administration, top management, line managers, etc.

Human Relations

Personnel department concerned with the human relations in the organization. It stabilizes human relations through 7 Cs communication, supervision and leadership

What Happens In the Absence of Personnel Management

  • The turnover rate will be high
  • Wrong hiring process
  • Conflicts will be increased
  • Wrong compensation and benefits plans
  • Outdated structure
  • Unfair labour practices
  • Incompetent workforce
  • Demotivated employees
  • Unable to gain competitive advantage
  • Wrong performance appraisals systems
  • Organization’s goals and objectives couldn’t be achieved

Filed Under: Management

Creation Credit Card Reviews

Last Updated on July 5, 2020 By Lisa C. Townes Leave a Comment

Creation Finance is a privately owned company by BNP Paribas Personal Finance Parent Company. The company offers simple products including Balance Transfer, Football Club, Travel, and Purchase Credit Cards. It also offers protection, insurance, PPI plans personal loans as well as retail, home improvement, and car loans.

Creation provides a few diverse credit cards, together with a no-fee. Its other credit cards offer a variety of 0% interest opportunity on balance transfers or purchases.

It is affiliated with a number of brands such as football clubs and hotel chains, so it offers different appealing deals to certain audiences. Creation financial also offers the cards used by other financial services brands i.e., Asda Money.

Creation website is easy to use. Their application criteria are according to the average market and they present a variety of representative APRs that are depending on the amount applied for.

Football club credit cards wrap a variety of teams, you can choose your favourite team, and they frequently allow you benefits i.e., access to tickets before they go on broad sale.

Also allows you to buy your season ticket on them which are interest-free for an introductory period. You have to clear your balance as soon as possible though; else you will have to pay high-interest charges.

Creation also offers travel cards, which gives you points that can be used for flights or car rental.

Creation credit cards are fully regulated by the Financial Conduct Authority (FCA).

Products and Services

  • Credit cards
  • Cheap Creation loans
  • Home improvement loans
  • Insurance plans

Criteria Applying for Creation Credit Card

  • To have a good credit history
  • No blemishes or slip-ups.
  • You need to be over 23

Overall, with competitive rates for all categories of products and loans, customers with good credit history are preferred and they get the best deals.

Though, the customers with bad credit history don’t prefer Creation Finance a suitable choice due to their severe criteria for lending.

3 Main Creation Credit Cards

  • Quick
  • Simple
  • Smart

Features & Benefits

  • It gives personal and retail Loans from to £1,000 – £25,000
  • The creation credit card application process is fast and easy
  • Instant online decision
  • Its terms are flexible and rates are cheaper

Creation Everyday Credit Card Reviews

Min income
Recommendation
£800 per month
Transaction feesNo On foreign purchases & cash withdrawals

No non-sterling transaction fees


No cash transaction fees


(at home or abroad)

APR (variable) On purchases 12.9%

On cash withdrawals  12.9%


On balance transfers  12.9%

Annual fee£0

Creation Everyday is one of the best travel credit cards. It has no FX or cash withdrawal fees and has lower interest rates.

Everyday Card Advantages

  • They have No fees in using your Credit card abroad
  • You have to pay lower-than-average interest rates
  • They have No annual fee

The Creation Everyday credit card is one of the best travel credit cards to use abroad as it charges no fee for non-sterling buys and withdrawing cash from an ATM.

Everday Credit Card Disadvantages

Its interest rate on money withdrawals is lower-than-average at 12.9% APR. The Creation Everyday card charges interest on cash withdrawals at once so if you have withdrawn cash, you should pay off the balance as soon as possible. you can manage your account online through the creation credit card app.

Everyday VS Zero

Santander Zero Credit Card is a useful travel card since it doesn’t indict any fees on cash withdrawals and on non-sterling foreign dealings. Santander’s Retail Offers program is also valuable as it can save you between 5% and 25% at participating retailers.

One disadvantage to this credit card is that it has the higher-than-average interest rate on cash withdrawals among the group of travel cards.

If you are looking for a travel card to save you money on foreign transactions, the Creation Everyday card is recommended over the Santander Zero card.

The reason for this preference is the different interest rates on cash withdrawals. The Santander can also be beneficial if you use it in the UK, Zero can give some interesting value-creating opportunities by the Retailer Offers.

All Rounded Creation Co UK Reviews

Creation Finance offers All Rounded card that is one of the Creation Financial Services. It is a balance transfer credit card which offers 0% for 20 months on Balance Transfers.

It charges a 3% handling fee or £3, that is greater for balances transfer within 90 days of account opening and on card purchases, 0% fee is applied for up to 20 months since account opening.

All Round balance transfer credit card has no annual fee.

Eligibility Criteria for Applying for All Rounded Creation Co UK

  • Be a job holder and earning a minimum income of £20,000
  • Have a UK bank or building society account
  • Be a permanent resident of the UK
  • Be aged 18 or over
  • Be able to provide a landline telephone number and a valid email address

Benefits

  • You can apply for a free extra card so that you and your partner can take benefit of incredible rates
  • You can handle your account firmly online with My Account.

Creation All Rounded Representative Example

Standard Purchases is 18.9% p.a. variable and Representative APR is  18.9% APR variable.

This is for descriptive purposes only and it is based on a credit limit of £1200. The amount of credit may vary.

Creation Cards Activation

  • You need to get your card register or login to ‘My Account’.
  • You can also make a call on  0371 376 9214 or 0371 376 9253 for Credit Card activation and follow the instructions. The call can be recorded and will be charged at the basic rate.

Creation Online Account Manager

The “OAM” will permit you to manage your account every time it suits you. You can have access to your account securely and make changes On your tablet, mobile, or at home.

The Online Account Manager permits you to:

  • Make balance transfers
  • Make payments
  • Set up text or email alerts
  • View earlier and newest statements
  • Change personal information
  • Change the credit limit

To register for OAM go to Creation.com and click “My Account” at the top right corner

and

Follow the instructions i.e., Your card number, passcode and date of birth and set up your online account.

Your online account gives you the facility to make payments from a collection of cards. Creation accepts the following cards:

ROI

  • VISA debit card
  • VISA credit card
  • Mastercard credit card

UK

  • Mastercard credit card
  • VISA debit card
  • VISA credit card
  • Mastercard debit card
  • Switch
  • Solo
  • VISA Electron
  • Maestro

Creation Credit Card gives its customers the facility to change their due date through the online account manager. It also allows you to reduce your credit limit at any time.

Keep connected and in touch by Log into the Creation and get all the latest information on your account.

Filed Under: Banking & Finance

Unemployment in Pakistan [ Causes and Solutions ]

Last Updated on November 29, 2022 By Ayesha Saeed Leave a Comment

In the vast ocean of 195th countries, Pakistan lies under the band of developing countries that are still fighting in this global world for their survival. Being a developing country, it has been facing various huge crises including unemployment in Pakistan since its emergence.

Youth Unemployment is the main problem that Pakistan is facing Nowadays, and due to this poverty is at its peak. An atrocious fact that Pakistan is currently plagued with sheer Unemployment. This post is all about the causes of unemployment in Pakistan and presents the best possible solutions.

Employed-UnemployedStatistical Data
Unemployment Rate5.90%
Unemployed People3.62 Million
Population200 Million
Employed People62.23 Million

Top 8 Causes of Unemployment in Pakistan

Reasons for Unemployment in PakistanSolutions to Unemployment in Pakistan
Limited ResourcesMonitor Referral Systems
No InvestmentsSupport Industries
Fewer OpportunitiesSupport Investors
Poor Education SystemImplement Law
Limited ExperiencesProvide Experience Opportunities
Law ViolenceStart pension program
Energy Crisis 

The following are the determinants of unemployment in Pakistan. In Pakistan, there are about 2 million people are unemployed which is really perilous sign for Pakistanis.

Lack of Sources

One main reason is the lack of sources. The person who has graduated from any institute has to wait for any vacancy for a long time because he or she has to show a reference from any high official or in simple words, he/she needs a “source” despite his brilliant academic record and abilities.

Pakistani Soil is fertile. Budgeting authorities and politicians need to understand the importance of agriculture in Pakistan. Pakistan ranks number four among the largest cotton producing countries in the world, at 6th in wheat producing countries, at 8th in silk production, rice, fruits, and many other agricultural products. Yet agriculture’s contribution to Pakistan’s GDP is not satisfactory. It is all because of no resources for advanced farming.

Lack of Investment

Another reason is the lack of investment. Investors are investing in outside projects due to which there is a low savings average which leads to low capital, which is ultimately a reason for unemployment.

Lack of Opportunities

Pakistan is considered a talented nation but due to the poor employment system, many talented people do not find a platform to show their skills. Due to this many people remain jobless for a long time. Even Facebook marketing can enhance the business but a lack of familiarity with the banking system does not let people start.

Poor Education System in Pakistan

In Pakistan education system is not improved with time needs. There are several technical colleges that are training the students but this training is not according to the needs of the market. They are also not trained. From the primary level to university graduates, they must be trained in different skills, especially the main focus should be to build Entrepreneurial skills and characteristics in youth.

Lack of Experience

The frequently asked question in most job interviews is “How experienced you are?”. Despite providing a chance to experience to skilled people everyone is asking for their high experience in the field.

Violence of Law

As the law is not considered an important or respectable aspect of our society. Due to a lack of following of law, everyone considers himself superior and does whatever he wants. This makes the system poor due to which people avoid investing or establishing industries in the country.

Energy Crisis in Pakistan

Pakistan has been gifted with huge natural resources but due to a lack of government concentration these resources have not been used in a proper way. Facing this energy crisis government is unable to provide basic needs like electricity, water, gas, and home. Shortage of electricity causes loss to industrialists and as a result, they are shifting their units to other countries.

High Age of Retirement

In Pakistan, the age of retirement is 60. In many government institutes, there are officers who are not even able to work continuously for 2 hours but they are on the seat. Due to them, there are many talented people who are still looking for the job despite their ability, talent, hard work, and working power only because of the lack of any vacancies.

Is CPEC a hope for Pakistanis and Advantageous to Pakistan?

The CPEC appears to be a very crucial project for both countries. For Pakistan, it helps to provide a much-needed base to kick start its economic growth. CPEC will be a great source to generate employment opportunities for both, the literate and illiterate workforce.

Best 11 Solutions for reducing Unemployment in Pakistan

Being a nation it’s our honorable duty to take away the darkness of our country. Our country will progress only when we all play our role in it.

Big and Successful companies simply want to hire the best employee. Not any organization is willing to hire individuals who are unsure of what to do in a professional way.

A great initiative by PM Imran Khan: Naya Pakistan Housing Program

Since our country is surviving for many years it will not be proper by just the Government but we also have to help each other to uproot all the problems. Here are a few strategies to combat unemployment in Pakistan:

  • Unauthentic Sources should strictly be uprooted. So that deserving people should get the job.
  • The government should create an environment that makes the industrialist set up more and more industries.
  • The government should give many facilities and benefits to the investors so that they invest more in Pakistan.
  • The education system should be updated and systemized in a good manner.
  • Law implementation should strictly monitor.
  • Every citizen should follow the rules and regulations by heart and should maintain discipline.
  • The Government and also the high officials should try to provide a platform to youngsters where they could be able to gain experience and also a chance to enhance and polish their skills.
  • Hundreds of creative minds are facing high-interest rate personal loans in Pakistan. Govt. should start schemes to promote them.
  • A policy should be made in which the officers who have crossed the age of 50 should be given their deserving pensions and also a few allowances.
  • The government should construct and plan policies in a proper way
  • Businessmen should be encouraged to start their own businesses or continue the family business.
  • The youngsters should develop in themselves the qualities of working hard and also the passion for working productively.

There is not any problem in the world that can’t be removed with passion and determination. The only thing which has to be done is work with unity and responsibility. If every citizen starts performing his or her own duties then there is no one who will stop the nation to progress.

Being unemployed causes people to often feel woeful as well as dejected, so if you have some family member or friend who is unemployed ascertain that you are there for this person in their time of need and self-doubt as well.

Filed Under: Economy

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